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Viva Voce Questions — Essentials of Obstetrics

A bank of 300 viva voce questions and model answers (150 undergraduate + 150 postgraduate/FCPS), sourced from Essentials of Obstetrics by Prof. Dr. Tayyaba Majeed & Prof. Dr. Zahid Mahmood. Click “Show Answer” under any question to reveal the model answer, with the source chapter cited below each one.

1. Labour

Labour and Management

Undergraduate (7 questions)

Q1. Define labour.
Q2. What are the three stages of labour?
Q3. What are the latent and active phases of the first stage of labour?
Q4. What is the expected duration of the second stage of labour?
Q5. List the mechanisms of normal labour in order.
Q6. What is crowning?
Q7. What is given to actively manage the third stage of labour, and when?

Postgraduate / FCPS (7 questions)

Q8. How should fetal heart rate be monitored in the latent and active phases of the first stage, for low- and high-risk women?
Q9. What is restitution, and how does it differ from external rotation?
Q10. What is the prophylactic dose of misoprostol given per rectum in high-risk patients for PPH prevention, and when is it given?
Q11. What analgesia options are available during the active phase of the first stage of labour?
Q12. What postnatal monitoring is required in the first 2 hours after a normal vaginal delivery?
Q13. When should a primigravida versus a multigravida be shifted to the delivery room in the second stage?
Q14. How is an episiotomy performed, and when?

Abnormal Labour

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q15. How is poor progress in labour defined?
Q16. What three factors (the “3 Ps”) determine normal progress of labour?
Q17. What is the most common cause of poor progress in labour, and how is it managed?
Q18. Define cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) and distinguish absolute from relative CPD.
Q19. What is the presenting diameter in face presentation, and what determines whether vaginal delivery is possible?
Q20. What is the mode of delivery for shoulder presentation, and why?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q21. How is relative cephalopelvic disproportion diagnosed, and can it be overcome?
Q22. What is the incidence of brow presentation, and what is its presenting diameter?
Q23. What is secondary uterine inertia, and how is it managed?
Q24. What is deep transverse arrest, and what commonly causes it?
Q25. How is deep transverse arrest managed?
Q26. What abnormalities of the birth canal can delay labour, and how are they managed?

Induction of Labour

Undergraduate (7 questions)

Q27. What is the most common obstetric indication for induction of labour?
Q28. List the contraindications to induction of labour.
Q29. What is membrane stripping (stretch and sweep), and when is it offered?
Q30. What is the dosing regimen for vaginal dinoprostone (PGE2) in induction of labour?
Q31. What is failed induction, and how common is it?
Q32. What is uterine hyperstimulation, how common is it, and how is it treated?
Q33. What four components make up the modified Bishop score?

Postgraduate / FCPS (7 questions)

Q34. How is the Bishop score used clinically?
Q35. Compare the safety profile of PGE2, misoprostol, and amniotomy for induction of labour.
Q36. When should amniotomy (alone or with oxytocin) be used as a primary method of induction?
Q37. What are the risks of induction of labour that should be discussed with a patient?
Q38. What FIGO-recommended misoprostol dose is used for induction in intrauterine fetal death?
Q39. Why is exact calculation of gestational age critical before induction of labour?
Q40. How frequently should the Bishop score be reassessed after a dose of vaginal PGE2?

Malposition of Fetal Head

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q41. What is occipitoposterior (OP) position, and which variant is more common?
Q42. What are the recognised causes of occipitoposterior position?
Q43. What are the four possible fates of an OP position in labour?
Q44. What happens in “face to pubes” delivery?
Q45. How is the degree of flexion of the fetal head assessed on vaginal examination?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q46. What proportion of occipitoposterior labours result in spontaneous anterior rotation and normal delivery?
Q47. How can the diagnosis of OP position be confirmed in the second stage when caput succedaneum obscures the fontanelles?
Q48. What antenatal abdominal findings suggest an occipitoposterior position?
Q49. How is the first stage of labour managed in a woman with occipitoposterior position?
Q50. What are the options for assisting delivery when the fetal head needs rotation?

Post-term Delivery

Undergraduate (4 questions)

Q51. How is post-term (prolonged) pregnancy defined?
Q52. From what gestation should induction of labour be offered for an uncomplicated prolonged pregnancy?
Q53. What simple procedure can be offered at the 40-week visit to reduce the chance of needing formal induction?
Q54. What are the fetal risks of prolonged pregnancy?

Postgraduate / FCPS (4 questions)

Q55. What surveillance should be offered to a woman who declines induction beyond 41 weeks?
Q56. Why is non-vertex presentation relevant when planning induction for prolonged pregnancy?
Q57. How does a low (unfavourable) Bishop score affect the plan for induction in prolonged pregnancy?
Q58. What risks specific to induction should be discussed with a woman being induced for prolonged pregnancy?

Vaginal Birth After Caesarean Section

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q59. What success rate should a woman attempting VBAC after one previous uncomplicated LSCS be counselled to expect?
Q60. After what gestation should an elective repeat Caesarean section be performed?
Q61. What is the quoted risk of uterine rupture during a VBAC attempt?
Q62. What is the single best predictor of a successful VBAC?
Q63. What are the selection criteria for offering VBAC?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q64. Give an example of a “recurrent cause” versus a “non-recurrent cause” contraindication to VBAC.
Q65. What factors are associated with a reduced likelihood of successful VBAC?
Q66. What increased risks does induction or augmentation of labour carry in a VBAC attempt?
Q67. Should the uterine scar be examined digitally after a VBAC delivery?
Q68. What clinical features suggest uterine scar rupture during a VBAC attempt?
↑ Back to topics

2. Obstetrical Emergencies

Antepartum Haemorrhage

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q69. Define antepartum haemorrhage (APH) and state its incidence.
Q70. List the causes of APH by category.
Q71. Contrast the clinical presentation of placenta previa and placental abruption.
Q72. Why must vaginal examination be avoided in APH before a specific step?
Q73. Describe the initial resuscitation steps for a woman with major APH.
Q74. What are the maternal and fetal complications of APH?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q75. List the risk factors specific to placenta previa.
Q76. List the risk factors specific to placental abruption.
Q77. What blood products are given based on coagulation results in massive APH, and at what thresholds?
Q78. How does mode of delivery differ for a live versus a dead fetus in major placental abruption?
Q79. What special precautions are needed for delivery of major degree placenta previa?
Q80. How is minor placental abruption between 34-38 weeks managed?

Postpartum Haemorrhage / Shock

Undergraduate (8 questions)

Q81. Define primary and secondary PPH.
Q82. How is PPH classified by severity?
Q83. What are the “Four T’s” of PPH?
Q84. Give an example of a risk factor for each of the Four T’s.
Q85. What is the initial resuscitation for PPH?
Q86. What is the first-line uterotonic combination for an atonic uterus?
Q87. What is the stepwise drug escalation for ongoing atonic PPH after Syntometrine?
Q88. What surgical options are used for atonic PPH unresponsive to medical management?

Postgraduate / FCPS (8 questions)

Q89. What is done if the uterus is well contracted but bleeding continues?
Q90. What step comes between drug therapy and surgery in the PPH pathway if bleeding continues?
Q91. What is uterine inversion, and how does it present?
Q92. At what fibrinogen level is cryoprecipitate indicated in PPH?
Q93. Which risk factor for PPH falls under “Thrombin”?
Q94. Which risk factors for PPH fall under “Tone”?
Q95. What invasive monitoring should be considered in major PPH resuscitation?
Q96. In what order is medical and surgical management escalated for an atonic uterus?

Cord Prolapse

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q97. Define cord prolapse.
Q98. What is the incidence of cord prolapse overall, and with breech presentation?
Q99. What fetal heart rate abnormalities should raise suspicion of cord prolapse?
Q100. What maternal position helps reduce cord compression while preparing for delivery?
Q101. What is the recommended mode of delivery for cord prolapse when vaginal birth is not imminent?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q102. Why is artificial rupture of membranes with a high presenting part discouraged?
Q103. From what gestation should elective hospital admission be discussed for a woman with an unstable lie?
Q104. What is the immediate action if loops of cord are found lying outside the vagina?
Q105. When can tocolysis be used in cord prolapse?
Q106. What is cord presentation, and how does its management differ from cord prolapse?

Shoulder Dystocia

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q107. Define shoulder dystocia.
Q108. What is the incidence of shoulder dystocia?
Q109. What is the “turtleneck sign”?
Q110. What is the first manoeuvre performed for shoulder dystocia after calling for help?
Q111. Why should fundal pressure never be used in shoulder dystocia?
Q112. What head-to-body delivery interval should not be exceeded in shoulder dystocia, and why?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q113. What recurrence risk of shoulder dystocia should a woman with a previous history be counselled about?
Q114. At what estimated fetal weight threshold should elective Caesarean section be considered in diabetic pregnancy to reduce shoulder dystocia risk?
Q115. What proportion of brachial plexus injuries from shoulder dystocia result in permanent neurological dysfunction?
Q116. What is the approximate risk of PPH following shoulder dystocia?
Q117. What is done if McRoberts’ manoeuvre and suprapubic pressure fail to resolve shoulder dystocia?
Q118. What are the last-resort options if all standard manoeuvres for shoulder dystocia fail?

Puerperal Sepsis

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q119. Define puerperal sepsis.
Q120. What proportion of direct maternal deaths in Africa and Asia is puerperal sepsis responsible for?
Q121. What proportion of puerperal sepsis cases are due to mastitis?
Q122. What broad-spectrum antibiotic combination is used to treat puerperal sepsis?
Q123. For how long should antibiotics be continued in puerperal sepsis?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q124. Give examples of aerobic, anaerobic, and miscellaneous organisms causing puerperal sepsis.
Q125. List the “red flags” for puerperal sepsis.
Q126. What are the non-infective risk factors for puerperal sepsis?
Q127. Distinguish general from specific investigations in suspected puerperal sepsis.
Q128. What surgical interventions may be needed for puerperal sepsis?
↑ Back to topics

3. Obstetrical Complications

Multiple Gestation

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q129. Define multiple gestation and state its incidence.
Q130. What determines chorionicity/amnionicity based on the timing of zygote division?
Q131. List risk factors for dizygotic twinning.
Q132. What proportion of monochorionic twin pregnancies develop TTTS?
Q133. At what gestation should elective birth be offered for uncomplicated monochorionic twins, and dichorionic twins?
Q134. What is the recommended mode of delivery when the first (presenting) twin is non-cephalic?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q135. What is the risk to a surviving twin after single fetal demise occurring after 14 weeks?
Q136. How is chorionicity determined on ultrasound, and when?
Q137. What prophylactic medication should be started from 12 weeks in twin pregnancy, and why?
Q138. What is the surveillance schedule for monochorionic monoamniotic twins?
Q139. What dose of misoprostol is used for active management of the third stage in twin delivery?
Q140. What are the specific hazards of inducing labour in a twin pregnancy?

Polyhydramnios

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q141. How is polyhydramnios diagnosed on ultrasound, and how is severity graded?
Q142. Give an example of a fetal cause of polyhydramnios and explain the mechanism.
Q143. What is the main maternal cause of polyhydramnios?
Q144. What clinical findings should raise suspicion of polyhydramnios?
Q145. What complications are anticipated with polyhydramnios?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q146. When is amnioreduction indicated for polyhydramnios, and what is a risk of the procedure?
Q147. Up to what gestation can indomethacin be used for polyhydramnios, and why?
Q148. At what MCA peak systolic velocity should a woman with polyhydramnios be referred to a fetal medicine unit for suspected fetal anaemia?
Q149. Under what circumstance should cervical cerclage be considered in polyhydramnios?
Q150. Why is spontaneous onset of labour generally preferred over induction in polyhydramnios?

Oligohydramnios

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q151. Define oligohydramnios.
Q152. Give an example of a fetal cause of oligohydramnios.
Q153. What proportion of oligohydramnios cases are idiopathic?
Q154. How is severe oligohydramnios with a lethal anomaly before 24 weeks managed?
Q155. What is the major long-term complication of early, severe oligohydramnios?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q156. What surveillance is recommended for borderline oligohydramnios (AFI 5-8cm)?
Q157. What surveillance is used for severe oligohydramnios diagnosed between 24-36 weeks, after steroid cover?
Q158. Which causes of oligohydramnios fall under “uteroplacental insufficiency”?
Q159. Which drug classes are associated with oligohydramnios?
Q160. Why is continuous intrapartum FHR monitoring recommended in oligohydramnios?

Pre-Term Pre-Labour Rupture of Membranes

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q161. Define PPROM.
Q162. What proportion of women deliver within 1 week, and within 2 weeks, of a PPROM diagnosis?
Q163. How is PPROM diagnosed on sterile speculum examination?
Q164. What is the first-line antibiotic for PPROM, and for how long?
Q165. How is PPROM managed in the absence of contraindications to continuing pregnancy?
Q166. What is the steroid regimen for fetal lung maturity in PPROM?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q167. What bedside biochemical tests can be used to diagnose PPROM if there is no pooling on speculum exam, and what is their accuracy?
Q168. What is the most informative maternal blood marker for detecting infection in PPROM, and its sensitivity/specificity?
Q169. At what gestational window does magnesium sulphate for fetal neuroprotection have the greatest benefit?
Q170. Why is co-amoxiclav avoided as prophylaxis in PPROM?
Q171. What is the role of tocolysis in PPROM?
Q172. What should a woman with a previous PPROM be counselled about in a subsequent pregnancy?

Preterm Labour and Delivery

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q173. How is preterm delivery defined, and what are the sub-categories by gestation?
Q174. What recurrence risk of preterm delivery applies after one, and after two, previous preterm deliveries?
Q175. What is the tocolytic drug of choice for threatened preterm labour?
Q176. List the risk factors for preterm delivery.
Q177. List the aetiological categories of preterm delivery.
Q178. What preventive measures are used for women at high risk of preterm delivery?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q179. What is the role of magnesium sulphate in preterm labour management?
Q180. What is the proposed mechanism by which progesterone helps prevent preterm delivery?
Q181. Why are appendicitis and other surgical procedures listed as causes of preterm labour?
Q182. Give an example of a uterine anomaly and a cervical anomaly associated with preterm delivery.
Q183. Does parity at either extreme (nulliparity vs grand multiparity) increase preterm delivery risk?
Q184. What four components make up the management approach to preterm labour?

Small for Gestational Age

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q185. Define small for gestational age (SGA).
Q186. How is severe SGA defined?
Q187. What is the sensitivity and specificity of symphysio-fundal height (SFH) measurement for detecting SGA?
Q188. Give an example each of a minor and a major risk factor for SGA.
Q189. Why is serial growth assessment preferred over a single abdominal circumference measurement?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q190. What PAPP-A level is a major risk factor for SGA, and what surveillance follows?
Q191. What surveillance pathway follows 3 or more minor risk factors for SGA?
Q192. What is the recommended delivery timing when umbilical artery Doppler shows absent or reversed end-diastolic flow with an abnormal ductus venosus Doppler?
Q193. What investigations should be offered for a severely SGA fetus before 23 weeks with a normal uterine artery Doppler?
Q194. When is delivery offered for an SGA fetus with a normal umbilical artery Doppler?

Thromboembolism in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q195. What are the three components of Virchow’s triad, and how does pregnancy affect them?
Q196. What is the most common cause of direct maternal death in the UK?
Q197. What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing DVT in pregnancy?
Q198. Why is warfarin avoided for antenatal VTE treatment?
Q199. Describe the most common presentation of pulmonary embolism in pregnancy.
Q200. From what postnatal day can warfarin be considered after VTE treatment with LMWH?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q201. Why is UFH preferred over LMWH in acute life-threatening pulmonary embolism?
Q202. What is the APTT monitoring schedule for a woman on UFH infusion?
Q203. What is the enoxaparin thromboprophylaxis dose for a woman weighing 50-90kg?
Q204. How long before regional anaesthesia should the last prophylactic (and therapeutic) dose of LMWH be given?
Q205. In the low-risk thromboprophylaxis category, what determines whether prophylaxis starts at 28 weeks versus the first trimester?
Q206. For how long should postnatal LMWH thromboprophylaxis continue in a high-risk woman (e.g. previous VTE)?

Rh Incompatibility

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q207. Why does Rh incompatibility not typically affect the first pregnancy?
Q208. What is the minimum volume of fetal blood that can cause isoimmunization?
Q209. What are the antenatal anti-D dosing regimens?
Q210. Give three examples of potential sensitising events.
Q211. What does an anti-D level below 4 IU/ml, versus above 15 IU/ml, indicate?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q212. What anti-D dose is given for a sensitising event between 12-20 weeks?
Q213. What is the approach to anti-D dosing for a sensitising event after 20 weeks?
Q214. At what minimum interval should anti-D be repeated in recurrent vaginal bleeding after 20+0 weeks?
Q215. What is the sensitivity of MCA Doppler for detecting fetal anaemia, and its main limitation?
Q216. What are the treatment options once significant fetal anaemia is suspected in a sensitised pregnancy?
↑ Back to topics

4. Medical Disease in Pregnancy

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (9 questions)

Q217. Define pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
Q218. Define pre-eclampsia.
Q219. What blood pressure defines severe hypertension in pregnancy?
Q220. What is the target blood pressure for treating PIH?
Q221. Which conditions qualify as a single high-risk factor for pre-eclampsia, warranting aspirin prophylaxis on their own?
Q222. List the symptoms of pre-eclampsia.
Q223. When is uncomplicated PIH delivered?
Q224. Which uterotonic should be avoided in the intrapartum management of hypertensive disorders?
Q225. Within what time frame should methyldopa be switched to an alternative antihypertensive postnatally?

Postgraduate / FCPS (9 questions)

Q226. What are the diagnostic laboratory criteria for HELLP syndrome?
Q227. Describe the two waves of trophoblastic invasion in normal pregnancy and how they fail in pre-eclampsia.
Q228. What is acute atherosis, and is it specific to pre-eclampsia?
Q229. Describe the characteristic renal lesion of pre-eclampsia.
Q230. What does hyperuricaemia in pre-eclampsia reflect, and what is a proposed benefit?
Q231. How do PAI-1 and PAI-2 changes reflect endothelial and placental status in pre-eclampsia?
Q232. Do normal routine coagulation tests exclude coagulation activation in pre-eclampsia?
Q233. Trace the metabolic pathway from insulin resistance to acute atherosis in pre-eclampsia.
Q234. What is the eclampsia seizure management protocol if fits persist despite magnesium sulphate?

Diabetes in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (8 questions)

Q235. What proportion of diabetes in pregnancy is due to GDM versus pre-existing diabetes?
Q236. What folic acid dose should women with pre-existing diabetes take pre-conception?
Q237. What are the NICE diagnostic criteria for GDM?
Q238. Why should women with pre-existing diabetes start aspirin from 12 weeks?
Q239. What is the target fasting blood sugar during antenatal management of diabetes in pregnancy?
Q240. What additional views should the 20-week anomaly scan include in a diabetic pregnancy?
Q241. When is uncomplicated GDM delivered?
Q242. How should insulin dosing change immediately postpartum in a woman with insulin-treated pre-existing diabetes?

Postgraduate / FCPS (8 questions)

Q243. How do the WHO fasting glucose criteria for GDM differ from NICE criteria?
Q244. What miscarriage risk is associated with an HbA1c above 85mmol/l pre-conception?
Q245. What insulin infusion rate corresponds to a blood glucose of 9.0-10.9 mmol/L on the intrapartum sliding scale?
Q246. How does recommended insulin dosing per kg change across the trimesters?
Q247. How does serum creatinine level affect the chance of successful pregnancy in diabetic nephropathy?
Q248. What congenital anomaly is seen almost exclusively in babies of diabetic mothers?
Q249. What proportion of perinatal mortality in diabetic pregnancies is attributed to malformations?
Q250. When do accelerated fetal growth patterns typically appear in poorly controlled diabetic pregnancy?

Anemia in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (6 questions)

Q251. What is the WHO definition of anaemia in pregnancy?
Q252. What proportion of anaemia in pregnancy is due to iron deficiency?
Q253. How is anaemia severity graded?
Q254. What nail sign is associated with iron deficiency anaemia?
Q255. How do MCV, MCH and MCHC differ between iron deficiency anaemia and thalassemia?
Q256. At what haemoglobin level at term is blood transfusion indicated?

Postgraduate / FCPS (6 questions)

Q257. What is the total iron requirement over pregnancy, and its components?
Q258. How much elemental iron does a 200mg ferrous sulfate tablet provide?
Q259. What is iron carboxymaltose, and what response rate does it produce?
Q260. By how much does moderate versus severe anaemia increase the risk of PPH?
Q261. What test differentiates folate deficiency from vitamin B12 deficiency?
Q262. How is compliance with oral iron therapy assessed?

Thyroid Diseases in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q263. What proportion of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy is due to Graves disease?
Q264. What is the first-line anti-thyroid drug in early pregnancy?
Q265. For how long should conception be avoided after radioactive iodine treatment?
Q266. What is the typical starting dose of thyroxine for hypothyroidism in pregnancy?
Q267. Describe the typical course of postpartum thyroiditis.

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q268. Why can conditions like molar pregnancy or hyperemesis gravidarum cause clinical hyperthyroidism?
Q269. From what gestation can the fetal thyroid respond to maternal TSH receptor stimulating antibodies?
Q270. What is the mortality if neonatal hyperthyroidism (from maternal Graves antibodies) is left untreated?
Q271. What are the approximate maternal and fetal mortality rates in thyroid storm?
Q272. Is PTU safe during breastfeeding?

Cardiac Disease in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q273. What is the overall incidence of serious heart disease complicating pregnancy?
Q274. In which conditions is pregnancy specifically advised against?
Q275. Describe NYHA Stage 2 cardiac functional status.
Q276. What is the endocarditis prophylaxis regimen given in labour for at-risk cardiac patients?
Q277. Which uterotonic should be avoided, and why, in women with cardiac disease?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q278. During which weeks of pregnancy can warfarin be used for anticoagulation in cardiac disease, if the patient prefers oral treatment?
Q279. By what gestation, or how many days before delivery, should warfarin be switched to LMWH?
Q280. What monitoring should be considered for NYHA class III/IV patients in labour?
Q281. Describe the “5 minutes/5 hours/5 days/5 weeks” framework of postpartum cardiac risk.
Q282. What fetal complications are associated with warfarin exposure in pregnancy?

Epilepsy in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (5 questions)

Q283. What is the prevalence of epilepsy in pregnant women?
Q284. What folic acid dose is recommended for women with epilepsy planning pregnancy?
Q285. What proportion of women with epilepsy have unchanged seizure control during pregnancy?
Q286. What is the drug of choice for terminating a seizure occurring during labour?
Q287. Why is vitamin K given to the newborn of a mother with epilepsy on anti-epileptic drugs?

Postgraduate / FCPS (5 questions)

Q288. Which anti-epileptic drug is most specifically associated with neural tube defects?
Q289. Why does carbamazepine reduce the reliability of hormonal contraception?
Q290. What is the preferred method of emergency contraception for a woman on enzyme-inducing AEDs?
Q291. What is the risk of a child developing epilepsy if both parents are affected?
Q292. Within what time frame after delivery should an AED dose that was increased during pregnancy be revised?

Jaundice in Pregnancy

Undergraduate (4 questions)

Q293. What is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy?
Q294. What symptom is classic for obstetric cholestasis?
Q295. What is the first-line treatment for obstetric cholestasis?
Q296. Why is a coagulation profile important in suspected fulminant hepatic failure in pregnancy?

Postgraduate / FCPS (4 questions)

Q297. How is HELLP syndrome managed?
Q298. How is acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) managed?
Q299. Why should interferons be avoided for viral hepatitis during pregnancy?
Q300. What two conditions are specifically associated with splenomegaly in a jaundiced pregnant patient?

More viva questions will be added over time — bookmark this page and check back.