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1. SURGICAL ANATOMY

1.1 Submandibular Gland

Q1. A surgeon has to operate on a right submandibular gland. Excision of gland for benign disease is planned.

  1. What are important anatomical relationships of submandibular gland?
  2. To what group of lymph nodes does the submandibular gland drain? (Annual 2017)
Model Answer
a. The gland has a large superficial part and a small deep part that wrap around the posterior border of mylohyoid. Key relations: the facial artery grooves the gland and the facial vein crosses its surface; the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve lies superficial to it (kept safe by placing the skin incision ~2 finger-breadths below the mandible). The deep part lies on hyoglossus and is closely related to the lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, hypoglossal nerve and Wharton’s (submandibular) duct.
b. To the submandibular group of lymph nodes, which in turn drain to the deep cervical (jugulodigastric) nodes.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Salivary glands

1.2 Thyroid Gland

Q1. A 45-year-old euthyroid female with multinodular goitre is listed for total thyroidectomy.

  1. Describe the anatomical structures encountered before reaching the thyroid gland.
  2. Which two nerves must you save during the procedure? (Annual 2020)
Model Answer
a. (Superficial → deep) Skin → superficial fascia with platysmaanterior jugular veins → investing layer of deep cervical fascia → strap muscles (sternohyoid & sternothyroid) → pretracheal fascia enclosing the gland.
b. The recurrent laryngeal nerve and the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The thyroid gland

Q2. A 30-year-old secretary is undergoing thyroidectomy for multinodular goitre.

  1. Name the structures the surgeon incises/dissects to expose the thyroid gland.
  2. Enlist five structures to be saved during thyroid dissection. (Supple 2011)
Model Answer
a. Skin → superficial fascia with platysma → anterior jugular veins → investing deep cervical fascia → strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid) → pretracheal fascia.
b. (i) Recurrent laryngeal nerve, (ii) external branch of superior laryngeal nerve, (iii) parathyroid glands, (iv) trachea & oesophagus, (v) common carotid artery / internal jugular vein.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The thyroid gland

Q3. A 45-year-old with a large multinodular goitre underwent bilateral subtotal thyroidectomy through a Kocher incision. To expose each lobe the surgeon decided to divide the muscle covering the lobes.

  1. Name the muscle covering the thyroid lobes.
  2. Should these muscles be divided in the lower part of the neck near the manubrium or in the upper part, and why?
Model Answer
a. The strap muscles — chiefly sternothyroid (with sternohyoid).
b. Divide them in the upper part of the neck. Their nerve supply (ansa cervicalis) enters from below, so a high division preserves the nerve supply to the lower part of the muscles.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The thyroid gland

Q4. A 40-year-old housewife with multinodular goitre is planned for total thyroidectomy through a collar incision. What anatomical structures are encountered in this incision before reaching the thyroid gland? (Annual 2007)

Model Answer
Skin → superficial fascia with platysmaanterior jugular veins → investing layer of deep cervical fascia → strap muscles (sternohyoid & sternothyroid) → pretracheal fascia enclosing the gland.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The thyroid gland

Q5. A 35-year-old woman with multinodular goitre is undergoing total thyroidectomy.

  1. Enumerate the arteries divided to free the lobes of the thyroid.
  2. Name one nerve, one large artery and one associated gland to be preserved. (Model paper 2007)
Model Answer
a. Superior thyroid artery, inferior thyroid artery (and the thyroidea ima if present).
b. Nerve — recurrent laryngeal nerve; large artery — common carotid artery; gland — parathyroid gland.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The thyroid gland

Q6. A 35-year-old female with multinodular goitre is listed for subtotal thyroidectomy.

  1. What is the appropriate incision and its anatomical level?
  2. Which thyroid pedicles will the surgeon ligate? Name the structures crossed to reach them.
  3. What special precautions avoid neurological injury? (Annual 2022)
Model Answer
a. A transverse skin-crease collar (Kocher) incision, about 2 finger-breadths (~2 cm) above the sternal notch, roughly at the level of the cricoid cartilage.
b. The superior pedicle (superior thyroid artery/vein) at the upper pole and the inferior pedicle (inferior thyroid artery), plus the middle thyroid vein. They are reached after retracting/dividing the strap muscles and opening the pretracheal fascia.
c. Identify and preserve the recurrent laryngeal nerve in the tracheo-oesophageal groove; ligate the superior pedicle close to the gland to protect the external laryngeal nerve; ligate the inferior thyroid artery lateral/away from the gland; preserve the parathyroids.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The thyroid gland

1.3 Breast

Q1.

  1. Describe the lymphatic drainage of the breast.
  2. What are the ligaments of Cooper?
  3. What is the significance of these ligaments? (Annual 2018)
Model Answer
a. About 75% drains to the axillary nodes (anterior/pectoral, posterior/subscapular, lateral, central, apical groups) and about 25% to the internal mammary (parasternal) nodes; a small amount reaches supraclavicular nodes and the opposite breast.
b. Cooper’s ligaments are the suspensory ligaments of the breast — fibrous septa running from the skin to the pectoral fascia.
c. They support the breast; malignant infiltration shortens them, causing skin tethering/dimpling (and, with lymphatic blockage, peau d’orange) — an important clinical sign of cancer.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The breast

Q2. During modified radical mastectomy the surgeon approaches the axilla by lifting a thick muscle anteriorly.

  1. Which is the muscle and its function?
  2. Which deeper structure is divided to expose the axillary nodes, and the importance of its relations?
  3. Name at least three structures preserved while working in the axilla. (Annual 2012)
Model Answer
a. Pectoralis major — it adducts and medially rotates the arm.
b. Pectoralis minor. Its relation to the axillary nodes defines the levels of clearance — Level I lies below/lateral, Level II behind, and Level III above/medial to pectoralis minor.
c. Axillary vein, long thoracic nerve (nerve to serratus anterior — winging of scapula), thoracodorsal nerve/vessels (to latissimus dorsi); also the intercostobrachial nerve.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The breast

Q3. A 40-year-old with carcinoma of the left breast (upper outer quadrant) is planned for modified radical mastectomy.

  1. Give the lymphatic drainage of this area and the important structures in axillary dissection.
  2. What is a sentinel lymph node? (Annual 2009)
Model Answer
a. The upper outer quadrant drains mainly to the axillary nodes. Important structures encountered/preserved during axillary dissection: axillary vein, long thoracic nerve, thoracodorsal trunk and intercostobrachial nerve.
b. The sentinel node is the first node (or nodes) draining the tumour; identified by blue dye and/or radioisotope. Its status reliably predicts the state of the rest of the axilla and guides the need for clearance.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The breast

1.4 Abdomen

Q1.

  1. Draw and label the surface anatomy of the anterior abdomen divided into nine regions.
  2. Name two horizontal and two vertical lines responsible for this division. (Supple 2014)
Model Answer
a. The nine regions are — top row: right hypochondrium, epigastrium, left hypochondrium; middle row: right lumbar, umbilical, left lumbar; bottom row: right iliac (fossa), hypogastrium (suprapubic), left iliac (fossa).
b. Two horizontal lines: the subcostal (or transpyloric) line and the transtubercular (intertubercular) line. Two vertical lines: the right and left midclavicular (mid-inguinal) lines.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical anatomy of the abdomen

1.5 Stomach

Q1.

  1. Which arteries supply the stomach, and their parent arteries?
  2. Give four posterior relations of the stomach. (Supple 2016)
Model Answer
a. Left gastric (from coeliac trunk); right gastric (from hepatic artery); right gastroepiploic (from gastroduodenal); left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries (from splenic artery). The parent vessel is the coeliac trunk (→ left gastric, splenic, common hepatic).
b. The stomach bed (posterior relations): pancreas, spleen, left kidney and adrenal, splenic artery, transverse mesocolon and diaphragm.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Stomach & duodenum

Q2. A young man has carcinoma of the body and antrum of the stomach; subtotal gastrectomy with gastrojejunostomy is planned.

  1. What blood vessels are divided during this operation?
  2. What group of lymph nodes should be looked for? (Annual 2010)
Model Answer
a. Right gastric and right gastroepiploic arteries, branches of the left gastric, and the left gastroepiploic vessels.
b. The perigastric nodes along the lesser and greater curves, and the left gastric, coeliac, hepatic and splenic node groups (D1/D2 stations).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Stomach & duodenum

Q3. In a patient with carcinoma of the stomach, total gastrectomy is being performed. Name the arteries that need to be ligated. (Supple 2008)

Model Answer
Left gastric, right gastric, right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic and the short gastric arteries.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Stomach & duodenum

1.6 Hepatobiliary System

Q1. A 45-year-old with chronic cholelithiasis is listed for laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

  1. What is Calot’s triangle? Draw and label it.
  2. Enumerate four surgical anomalies encountered during laparoscopic cholecystectomy. (Supple 2020)
Model Answer
a. Calot’s (hepatobiliary) triangle is bounded by the cystic duct (below/inferolaterally), the common hepatic duct (medially) and the inferior border of the liver (above). It contains the cystic artery, the cystic lymph node of Lund and lymphatics.
b. Aberrant/accessory right hepatic artery; variations of the cystic artery (double or anterior); accessory bile ducts (ducts of Luschka); a low-lying or right-sided hepatic duct; a tortuous “caterpillar” (Moynihan’s) hump of the right hepatic artery.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts

Q2.

  1. Draw and label the surgical anatomy of the gallbladder with special reference to Calot’s triangle.
  2. Name four important structures related to the common bile duct. (Annual 2016)
Model Answer
a. Gallbladder parts — fundus, body, neck and Hartmann’s pouch; the cystic duct (with spiral valves of Heister) joins the common hepatic duct. Calot’s triangle (cystic duct, common hepatic duct, liver edge) contains the cystic artery.
b. Portal vein (posterior), hepatic artery (to the left), inferior vena cava (posterior) and the head of the pancreas / first part of duodenum (below and behind).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts

Q3. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy the surgeon dissects Calot’s triangle.

  1. What is Calot’s triangle?
  2. Why is it important during laparoscopic cholecystectomy? (Supple 2015)
Model Answer
a. The triangle bounded by the cystic duct, the common hepatic duct and the inferior border of the liver; it contains the cystic artery and node of Lund.
b. It is where the cystic artery and cystic duct are identified and ligated. Careful dissection here to achieve the critical view of safety prevents the most feared complication — common bile duct injury.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts

Q4.

  1. Draw and label the anatomy of the gallbladder and Calot’s triangle.
  2. Name four anatomical parts of the common bile duct. (Supple 2013)
Model Answer
a. As above — fundus, body, neck, Hartmann’s pouch, cystic duct; Calot’s triangle bounded by cystic duct, common hepatic duct and liver edge, containing the cystic artery.
b. Supraduodenal, retroduodenal, infraduodenal (pancreatic) and intraduodenal (intramural) parts.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts

Q5. A 40-year-old with chronic cholecystitis is to undergo cholecystectomy through a subcostal incision. Which anatomical structures are encountered before reaching the gallbladder? (Annual 2008)

Model Answer
Skin → superficial fascia (Camper’s & Scarpa’s) → anterior rectus sheath → rectus abdominis (divided) and the lateral muscles (external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis) → posterior rectus sheath / transversalis fascia → extraperitoneal fat → peritoneum. The 8th and 9th intercostal nerves are encountered.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts

Q6. A 46-year-old is undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy for gallstones.

  1. What is the main content of Calot’s triangle?
  2. Describe the three steps of the critical view of safety. (Annual 2021)
Model Answer
a. The cystic artery (with the cystic node of Lund and lymphatics).
b. (i) Calot’s triangle is cleared of all fat and fibrous tissue; (ii) the lowest third of the gallbladder is separated from the cystic plate/liver bed; (iii) only two structures — the cystic duct and cystic artery — are seen entering the gallbladder.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts

1.7 Spleen

Q1. A 20-year-old with ITP is planned for elective splenectomy.

  1. What are the different incisions used?
  2. What are the splenic pedicles and the structures dissected to reach them?
  3. Briefly describe splenunculi.
Model Answer
a. Left subcostal, upper midline or left paramedian incision; increasingly a laparoscopic approach.
b. The pedicles are the splenic artery and vein in the lienorenal ligament, and the short gastric vessels in the gastrosplenic ligament. To reach them the surgeon divides the gastrosplenic ligament (short gastrics) and the lienorenal ligament (main splenic vessels).
c. Splenunculi are accessory spleens — small nodules of splenic tissue present in 10–20% of people, usually at the hilum. They must be removed in haematological disease (e.g. ITP) or the condition recurs.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The spleen

1.8 Appendix

Q1. A 20-year-old with acute appendicitis.

  1. What should guide the surgeon’s choice of incision, based on anatomy?
  2. Enumerate the structures incised/retracted to reach a retrocaecal appendix. (Annual 2011)
Model Answer
a. The incision is centred over McBurney’s point (junction of lateral one-third and medial two-thirds of a line from the ASIS to the umbilicus) — a muscle-splitting Gridiron incision, or a transverse Lanz incision for better cosmesis.
b. Skin → Camper’s & Scarpa’s fascia → external oblique aponeurosis (split) → internal oblique and transversus abdominis (split along fibres) → transversalis fascia → extraperitoneal fat → peritoneum; then the caecum is mobilised (dividing its lateral peritoneal attachment) to reach the retrocaecal appendix.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The vermiform appendix

1.9 Kidney

Q1. A 25-year-old with left pyelolithiasis is planned for pyelolithotomy through a left lumbar subcostal incision. Which structures are encountered before reaching the kidney? (Annual 2008)

Model Answer
Skin → superficial fascia → latissimus dorsi and external obliqueinternal obliquetransversus abdominis (or lumbodorsal fascia) → transversalis fascia → perirenal (Gerota’s) fascia → perinephric fat → kidney. The subcostal nerve and the pleura are at risk.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The kidneys & ureters

1.10 Inguinal Hernia

Q1. A 25-year-old with a right inguinoscrotal swelling; provisional diagnosis right inguinal hernia.

  1. Describe the surgical anatomy of the inguinal canal.
  2. Give three differences between direct and indirect inguinal hernia.
Model Answer
a. An oblique passage ~4 cm long above the inguinal ligament, running from the deep to the superficial ring. Anterior wall: external oblique aponeurosis (+ internal oblique laterally). Posterior wall: transversalis fascia + conjoint tendon medially. Roof: arching fibres of internal oblique and transversus (conjoint). Floor: inguinal ligament (+ lacunar ligament medially). It transmits the spermatic cord (or round ligament) and the ilioinguinal nerve.
b. Indirect — passes through the deep ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, may descend into the scrotum, and is controlled by pressure over the deep ring. Direct — bulges through Hesselbach’s triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, rarely reaches the scrotum, and is not controlled by deep-ring pressure.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Hernias

Q2. Describe the boundaries of the inguinal canal. How do you clinically locate the deep inguinal ring? (Supple 2017)

Model Answer
Boundaries — Anterior: external oblique aponeurosis (+ internal oblique laterally); Posterior: transversalis fascia + conjoint tendon medially; Roof: conjoint (internal oblique + transversus); Floor: inguinal ligament (+ lacunar ligament). Deep ring: located about 1.25 cm (one finger-breadth) above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament; clinically, occlude this point and ask the patient to cough — an indirect hernia is controlled, a direct hernia still bulges.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Hernias

Q3.

  1. Draw and label the anatomy of the inguinal canal and Hesselbach’s triangle.
  2. Name four contents of the inguinal canal in the male. (Annual 2015)
Model Answer
a. Hesselbach’s triangle is bounded medially by the lateral border of rectus abdominis, laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament — direct hernias emerge here.
b. Spermatic cord structures — vas deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform plexus of veins, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve (plus the ilioinguinal nerve lying on the cord).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Hernias

Q4. A patient with an indirect right inguinal hernia is planned for mesh hernioplasty.

  1. Give the boundaries of the inguinal canal.
  2. Name the structures cut from outside in until the sac is reached.
  3. Name one nerve at risk during hernia surgery. (Annual 2014)
Model Answer
a. Anterior: external oblique aponeurosis (+ internal oblique laterally); Posterior: transversalis fascia + conjoint tendon; Roof: conjoint muscle; Floor: inguinal ligament.
b. Skin → superficial fascia (Camper’s, Scarpa’s) → external oblique aponeurosis → cremasteric muscle/fascia → internal spermatic fascia → the sac (extraperitoneal tissue + peritoneum).
c. The ilioinguinal nerve (also the iliohypogastric and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Hernias

1.11 Femoral Hernia

Q1. A 60-year-old with a painful left groin swelling of one hour; suspected strangulated femoral hernia.

  1. Name the anatomical boundaries occupied by this hernia.
  2. Which structure impedes reduction of the hernia?
  3. Which vessel is prone to injury during the procedure? (Annual 2019)
Model Answer
a. The femoral canal — anterior: inguinal ligament; posterior: pectineal (Astley Cooper’s) ligament and pectineus; medial: lacunar (Gimbernat’s) ligament; lateral: femoral vein.
b. The sharp edge of the lacunar (Gimbernat’s) ligament.
c. An abnormal (aberrant) obturator artery crossing the neck of the sac — the “artery of death”; the femoral vein is also at risk.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Hernias

1.12 Blood Vessels

Q1.

  1. What are the anatomical relations of the right femoral vein?
  2. Draw and label the termination of the long saphenous vein in the right groin.
Model Answer
a. At the base of the femoral triangle the femoral vein lies within the femoral sheath: laterally the femoral artery, medially the femoral canal, posteriorly pectineus/psoas, and it receives the long saphenous vein anteriorly.
b. The long saphenous vein pierces the cribriform fascia at the saphenofemoral junction, about 2.5–3.5 cm below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, to join the femoral vein. Its named tributaries are the superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal and deep external pudendal veins.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Venous disorders

1.13 Testis

Q1. A mother brings her 4-year-old boy with an impalpable, undescended right testis.

  1. How will you counsel the mother about the surgical outcome?
  2. How will you investigate?
  3. Mention the steps of surgery from skin onward. (Supple 2018)
Model Answer
a. Explain that orchidopexy brings the testis into the scrotum to improve fertility potential, allow self-examination, and correct the cosmetic/psychological effect. Warn that the risk of malignancy remains higher than normal even after surgery, and that an atrophic testis may need removal. Ideally done before 12–18 months but still worthwhile.
b. Examination under anaesthesia and ultrasound; for an impalpable testis, diagnostic laparoscopy is the gold standard to locate an intra-abdominal testis (hormonal/hCG stimulation tests if bilateral impalpable).
c. Groin incision → open the inguinal canal → identify testis and cord → mobilise the testis and ligate the patent processus vaginalis (herniotomy) → gain cord length by retroperitoneal mobilisation → create a subdartos pouch in the scrotum → place the testis in the pouch without tension → close.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The testis & scrotum

↑ Back to topics

2. A&E SURGERY; TISSUE REPAIR

2.1 Pre-Op Evaluation & Management

Q1. A 30-year-old lactating diabetic mother with a left breast abscess; fasting blood sugar 230 mg/dl on oral agents, with pain, swelling and fever with rigors.

  1. How will you prepare the patient for surgery?
  2. What are the steps of management of the abscess?
  3. Give the post-op care. (Supple 2018)
Model Answer
a. Resuscitate and correct dehydration; control blood sugar (switch oral agents to an insulin sliding scale); start IV antibiotics and analgesia; baseline investigations (CBC, blood sugar, pus for culture); consent and keep nil by mouth.
b. Incision and drainage under anaesthesia — break down all loculi, send pus for culture/sensitivity, wash out and pack the cavity; an early lactational abscess may instead be treated by repeated aspiration plus antibiotics. Encourage continued breastfeeding/expression.
c. Analgesia, culture-guided antibiotics, tight glycaemic control, regular dressing changes, support breastfeeding, and wound review.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The breast / Surgical infection

Q2. A 45-year-old man on warfarin after prosthetic mitral valve replacement is listed for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. How will you manage him in the perioperative period?

Model Answer
He is high thrombotic risk (mechanical valve), so bridge the anticoagulation: stop warfarin ~5 days before surgery and start therapeutic LMWH or unfractionated heparin. Check INR is <1.5 on the day. Stop LMWH ~12–24 h (or IV heparin ~4–6 h) before surgery. Restart heparin postoperatively once haemostasis is secure, resume warfarin, and overlap until the INR is therapeutic. Consider endocarditis prophylaxis.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Preoperative preparation

Q3. A 45-year-old diabetic with gallstones and chronic cholecystitis is planned for laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

  1. How will you evaluate her preoperatively?
  2. What are the principles of creating pneumoperitoneum?
  3. What intraoperative complications can occur? (Annual 2015)
Model Answer
a. History and examination; optimise diabetes control; CBC, random sugar/HbA1c, LFTs, RFTs, coagulation, ultrasound, ECG and anaesthetic fitness.
b. Access by Veress needle or an open (Hasson) technique; insufflate CO₂ to 12–14 mmHg; monitor pressure and flow; ensure safe entry to avoid visceral/vascular injury.
c. Bleeding (cystic artery or liver bed), common bile duct injury, bile leak, bowel/visceral injury, gas embolism, trocar injury, and conversion to open surgery.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The gallbladder & bile ducts / Minimal access surgery

Q4. A malnourished 35-year-old (20% underweight) with an incisional hernia has surgery postponed for one month.

  1. Why was the operation delayed, and how should the problem be assessed?
  2. What advice should be given to achieve the objective? (Annual 2012)
Model Answer
a. Because malnutrition impairs wound healing and increases the risk of dehiscence and hernia recurrence. Assess with BMI, percentage weight loss, anthropometry (mid-arm circumference, skinfold thickness) and biochemistry (serum albumin/prealbumin).
b. A high-protein, high-calorie diet, correction of anaemia, treatment of comorbidities and dietician referral, to build her up before elective repair.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition / Wound healing

2.2 Wound Complication

Q1.

  1. What is wound dehiscence?
  2. Write the factors involved.
  3. What suture material closes the abdomen after laparotomy and its rationale? (Annual 2016)
Model Answer
a. Partial or complete separation of the layers of an abdominal wound (a complete separation with protrusion of viscera is a “burst abdomen”).
b. Local — infection, haematoma, poor surgical technique, raised intra-abdominal pressure (cough, ileus), poor tissue quality. General — malnutrition, anaemia, obesity, diabetes, steroids, malignancy, uraemia, old age.
c. Mass closure with a continuous non-absorbable or slowly-absorbable suture (looped nylon or PDS), keeping a suture length : wound length ratio ≥ 4:1 — this distributes tension evenly and reduces dehiscence.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Wound healing / Postoperative care

Q2. A 60-year-old, 5 days after laparotomy for perforated duodenal ulcer, develops fever and tachypnoea with a healthy wound. What is the differential diagnosis? (Supple 2007)

Model Answer
Causes of post-operative pyrexia (the “5 Ws”): chest — atelectasis/pneumonia (most likely with tachypnoea), urinary tract infection, deep vein thrombosis, wound infection, intra-abdominal collection / anastomotic or repair leak, and drug/transfusion reaction or cannula thrombophlebitis.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Postoperative care

2.3 Advanced Trauma Life Support

Q1. After crossfire, a conscious 30-year-old driver has a bleeding wound on the left leg.

  1. What will be your first step at reception?
  2. Give four steps of management.
  3. Outline the final treatment. (Annual 2011)
Model Answer
a. <C>ABC — control catastrophic external haemorrhage (direct pressure or tourniquet) first, then airway with cervical-spine control.
b. Airway + C-spine → Breathing (oxygen) → Circulation (two wide-bore IV lines, warmed fluids/blood, control bleeding) → Disability → Exposure.
c. Wound exploration, haemostasis and debridement, repair of any vascular/nerve injury, tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Early assessment & management of trauma (ATLS)

Q2. A 17-year-old after an RTA has multiple lacerations of the forearm soiled with mud and sand, with marked hand swelling. How will you manage this patient?

Model Answer
ATLS primary survey and analgesia. For the wound: thorough irrigation and debridement, remove all foreign material, tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics. Assess neurovascular status and watch for compartment syndrome (marked swelling) — perform fasciotomy if suspected. A contaminated wound is managed by delayed primary closure; X-ray to exclude a foreign body or fracture.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Wounds / Trauma

Q3. A 15-year-old motorcyclist with multiple injuries is dyspnoeic, tachycardic and hypotensive. How would you manage him using the ATLS approach? (Annual 2008)

Model Answer
Follow the primary survey (ABCDE) with simultaneous resuscitation: Airway with C-spine control; Breathing — oxygen and treat immediately life-threatening chest injuries (e.g. tension pneumothorax); Circulation — control haemorrhage, two wide-bore IV lines, warmed fluids/blood; Disability — GCS and pupils; Exposure. Use adjuncts (monitoring, catheters, X-rays, FAST), then the secondary survey and definitive care.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Early assessment & management of trauma (ATLS)

Q4. A 54-year-old with a profusely bleeding penetrating temporal wound arrives not breathing, with no recordable pulse or BP, and cannot be revived. What pre-hospital management could have saved her life? (Annual 2007)

Model Answer
Prompt control of external haemorrhage by direct pressure, early airway maintenance and basic life support, IV access with fluid resuscitation en route, and rapid transfer to hospital (“scoop and run”) — i.e. immediate bleeding control and airway management at the scene.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Trauma / Pre-hospital care

2.4 Primary Survey

Q1. A couple after an RTA — the husband dead, the wife with depressed consciousness; primary and secondary surveys were done.

  1. Discuss the trimodal distribution of death with the cause in each group.
  2. Enlist four adjuncts to the primary survey. (Annual 2014)
Model Answer
a. First peak (seconds–minutes): apnoea from severe brain or high spinal-cord injury, or rupture of the heart/great vessels — largely preventable only by injury prevention. Second peak (minutes–hours, the “golden hour”): extradural/subdural haematoma, haemopneumothorax, ruptured spleen/liver, pelvic fractures — ATLS targets this group. Third peak (days–weeks): sepsis and multi-organ failure.
b. ECG monitoring, pulse oximetry/capnography, urinary and gastric catheters, and X-rays (chest/pelvis) with FAST.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Early management of trauma (ATLS)

Q2. What do you understand by the term “primary survey”? (Annual 2021)

Model Answer
A rapid, systematic ABCDE assessment to identify and simultaneously treat immediately life-threatening injuries — Airway with cervical-spine control, Breathing, Circulation with haemorrhage control, Disability (neurological), and Exposure/environment — carried out together with resuscitation.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Early management of trauma (ATLS)

2.5 Definitive Care Plan (Tertiary Care)

Q1.

  1. What is FAST?
  2. Write down its uses and limitations. (Supple 2015)
Model Answer
a. Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma — bedside ultrasound to detect free fluid (blood) in the pericardial, perihepatic (Morrison’s pouch), perisplenic and pelvic spaces (eFAST also assesses for pneumo/haemothorax).
b. Uses: rapid, non-invasive, repeatable, bedside detection of haemoperitoneum/haemopericardium in an unstable trauma patient. Limitations: operator-dependent, misses <200 ml of fluid, poor for hollow-viscus, retroperitoneal and diaphragmatic injuries, limited by obesity/bowel gas, and it does not grade the injury.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Trauma / Investigations

2.6 Triage

Q1. In a suicide bomb attack, 50 died and 150 were injured and rushed to a district hospital. As the medical officer on duty, how would you manage these casualties? (Supple 2007)

Model Answer
Apply triage — sorting casualties by severity and salvageability to do the most good for the greatest number. Establish command, scene safety and communication; use a rapid ABC-based sort (e.g. START) into categories: T1 immediate (red), T2 urgent (yellow), T3 delayed (green) and T4 expectant/dead (black). Treat life-threats first, allocate areas and staff, call for extra resources, and evacuate by priority.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Disaster / mass-casualty management

2.7 Tension Pneumothorax

Q1. A 16-year-old after a motorbike accident has absent breath sounds and hyper-resonance on the left with the trachea deviated to the right.

  1. What is the diagnosis?
  2. What measures would you take? (Supple 2015)
Model Answer
a. Tension pneumothorax (left side).
b. This is a clinical diagnosis — do not wait for an X-ray. Perform immediate needle decompression (large-bore cannula in the 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line, or 4th/5th ICS anterior axillary line), followed by a chest drain (5th ICS, anterior to midaxillary line), with high-flow oxygen.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Torso trauma

Q2. A 40-year-old motorcyclist after an RTA is restless with tachypnoea, distended neck veins, tracheal deviation, hyper-resonance and decreased breath sounds over one hemithorax.

  1. What is your diagnosis?
  2. What immediate radiological investigation and management are needed?
  3. What are the “deadly dozen” threats to life? (Supple 2018)
Model Answer
a. Tension pneumothorax.
b. It is a clinical diagnosis — treat first (needle decompression then chest drain, oxygen, IV access); the chest X-ray is taken after decompression.
c. Six immediately life-threatening: airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, flail chest, cardiac tamponade. Six potentially lethal: thoracic aortic disruption, tracheobronchial injury, myocardial contusion, diaphragmatic rupture, oesophageal injury, pulmonary contusion.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Torso trauma

Q3. A 34-year-old after a motorbike accident is restless, pulse 140, BP 80/50, RR 30, with distended neck veins, absent breath sounds and a hyper-resonant left chest.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. How will you manage this patient? (Annual 2011)
Model Answer
a. Tension pneumothorax (left).
b. High-flow oxygen, immediate needle decompression then a chest drain, IV access and resuscitation, with reassessment.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Torso trauma

2.8 Brain Injury

Q1. A 20-year-old motorcyclist after an RTA had a brief loss of consciousness and has been resuscitated per ATLS.

  1. Write the guidelines for obtaining a CT brain in head injury.
  2. Write the management plan if the CT shows an acute extradural haematoma.
  3. Write the motor response part of the Glasgow Coma Scale. (Supple 2014)
Model Answer
a. Indications include GCS <13 on arrival or <15 at 2 hours, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, signs of basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, more than one episode of vomiting, and (with risk factors) age >65, coagulopathy, dangerous mechanism or amnesia >30 min.
b. Urgent neurosurgical referral for craniotomy and evacuation of the clot with control of the bleeding (middle meningeal artery); measures to control intracranial pressure. (The classic history is a “lucid interval”.)
c. Motor response (out of 6): 6 obeys commands, 5 localises to pain, 4 withdraws (flexion), 3 abnormal flexion (decorticate), 2 extension (decerebrate), 1 none.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Head injury

2.9 Spinal Injury

Q1. A 60-year-old after a fall from stairs has severe back pain; she is conscious, can walk a few steps with pain, and has normal vitals.

  1. What is the most reliable investigation to confirm the injury?
  2. Enlist five steps of management with precautions.
Model Answer
a. MRI of the spine (best for cord and soft tissue); CT gives the best bony detail initially.
b. (i) Spinal immobilisation (hard collar, log-roll, spine board); (ii) ABCDE with neuroprotection; (iii) full neurological assessment; (iv) imaging (CT/MRI); (v) maintain oxygenation and blood pressure to avoid secondary cord injury, give analgesia, DVT/pressure-sore care and early referral to a spinal unit. Precautions: always log-roll and maintain in-line immobilisation.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Spinal injuries

↑ Back to topics

3. SURGICAL NUTRITION

3.1 Nutritional Assessment

Q1. A 60-year-old man with dysphagia is not taking proper food. How will you assess his nutritional status? (Supple 2019)

Model Answer
History: dietary intake, appetite, percentage weight loss over time. Anthropometry: BMI, triceps skinfold thickness, mid-arm muscle circumference, hand-grip strength. Biochemistry: serum albumin (<3.5 g/dl), prealbumin, transferrin, total lymphocyte count and haemoglobin. Use a validated tool such as the SGA or MUST score.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q2. A 50-year-old with multiple enterocutaneous fistulae after a tuberculous perforation lost 10 kg in a week.

  1. What clinical parameters assess malnutrition?
  2. What nutritional therapy is needed and why? (Annual 2017)
Model Answer
a. Percentage weight loss, BMI, muscle wasting, skinfold thickness/mid-arm circumference, serum albumin/prealbumin, total lymphocyte count and grip strength.
b. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) — a high-output fistula requires the bowel to be rested, so nutrition is given by the parenteral route, which also reduces fistula output while fluid and electrolytes are corrected.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q3.

  1. How will you calculate BMI?
  2. How will you clinically assess the nutritional status of a surgical patient? (Supple 2016)
Model Answer
a. BMI = weight (kg) ÷ height² (m²) (normal 18.5–24.9 kg/m²).
b. Dietary history and percentage weight loss; anthropometry (BMI, triceps skinfold, mid-arm muscle circumference, grip strength); signs of muscle wasting and vitamin deficiency; supported by biochemistry (albumin, lymphocyte count) and a scoring tool (SGA/MUST).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q4. A 50-year-old with unresectable carcinoma of the oesophagus is emaciated with significant weight loss. How can you assess his nutritional status? (Supple 2015)

Model Answer
By history (intake, percentage weight loss), anthropometry (BMI, triceps skinfold, mid-arm muscle circumference, grip strength), and biochemistry (serum albumin/prealbumin, transferrin, total lymphocyte count, haemoglobin), combined with an SGA/MUST score.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q5. A 20-year-old lost ~20 kg after caustic-soda ingestion six months ago and needs corrective surgery. Which baseline investigations evaluate her nutritional status? (Annual 2015)

Model Answer
Haemoglobin/CBC; serum albumin, prealbumin and transferrin; total lymphocyte count; serum electrolytes; blood glucose; LFTs and RFTs; calcium, magnesium and phosphate; and trace elements.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q6. A 16-year-old with a 3-month history of dysphagia (solids and liquids) after corrosive intake.

  1. How will you assess her nutritional status?
  2. What is the best method of replenishing her nutritional requirements?
Model Answer
a. History and percentage weight loss, anthropometry (BMI, skinfold, mid-arm circumference) and biochemistry (albumin, lymphocyte count, Hb).
b. Use the gut if it works — enteral feeding via a feeding tube passed beyond the stricture, or a feeding gastrostomy/jejunostomy; TPN only if the enteral route is impossible.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q7. A 35-year-old develops a jejunal fistula after an anastomotic leak and is managed conservatively. How would you look after her nutritional requirements? (Supple 2007)

Model Answer
Rest the bowel with TPN, correct fluid and electrolyte losses, reduce output (nil by mouth ± somatostatin analogue), and monitor nutritional and biochemical parameters until the fistula heals.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q8. A 21-year-old with dysphagia for solids and vomiting, 4 months after bleach ingestion; emaciated, abdominal distension with a positive succussion splash.

  1. Give the most likely diagnosis.
  2. How will you assess her nutritional status?
  3. How will you build her up for surgery via the enteral route? (Annual 2021)
Model Answer
a. Corrosive-induced gastric outlet obstruction (pyloric stricture).
b. History/weight loss, anthropometry (BMI, skinfold, mid-arm circumference) and biochemistry (albumin, lymphocyte count, electrolytes).
c. Feeding jejunostomy or a naso-jejunal tube placed beyond the obstruction (or gastrostomy), giving high-calorie, high-protein feeds while correcting electrolytes.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q9. A 23-year-old with 3 months’ dysphagia after corrosive intake, now with non-bilious projectile vomiting and 10 kg loss.

  1. Describe different methods for nutritional assessment.
  2. What regular biochemical monitoring is mandatory during nutritional support? (Supple 2021)
Model Answer
a. Clinical/history, anthropometry, biochemical, immunological (lymphocyte count) and scoring tools (SGA/MUST).
b. Electrolytes (Na, K), blood glucose, phosphate, magnesium and calcium (to detect refeeding syndrome), plus LFTs, RFTs and albumin/prealbumin.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q10. A 50-year-old smoker with 2 months’ dysphagia for solids and liquids, anaemia and weight loss is diagnosed with upper-GI malignancy.

  1. How will you assess his nutritional status?
  2. What is the most appropriate route for nutritional build-up? (Annual 2022)
Model Answer
a. History/weight loss, anthropometry (BMI, skinfold, mid-arm circumference) and biochemistry (albumin, lymphocyte count, Hb).
b. Enteral if the gut is usable (feeding tube or stent past the stricture) — physiological and safer; use parenteral only if the enteral route is not possible.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

3.2 Calculation of Nutritional Requirements

Q1. For a 20-year-old who lost ~20 kg after caustic-soda ingestion and needs corrective surgery, what is the average 24-hour energy, carbohydrate, fat and protein requirement? (Annual 2015)

Model Answer
Approximate daily requirements: energy 25–30 kcal/kg (~2000 kcal); carbohydrate ~50–60% of calories (~300 g); fat ~30–40% of calories (~70 g); protein 1–1.5 g/kg (~60–90 g); with water ~30–35 ml/kg/day plus electrolytes, vitamins and trace elements.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

3.3 Enteral Feeding

Q1. A 60-year-old with oropharyngeal cancer cannot take orally before surgery. (Supple 2021)

  1. What clinical methods and investigations assess nutritional status?
  2. Which route of nutrition is preferred and why?
  3. What average 24-hour energy is required from carbohydrate, fat and protein?
Model Answer
a. History/weight loss and anthropometry; biochemistry (albumin, prealbumin, lymphocyte count, Hb).
b. Enteral (“if the gut works, use it”) — cheaper, physiological, maintains gut mucosal integrity and has fewer infective/metabolic complications; delivered via NG tube or gastrostomy.
c. Roughly 2000–2500 kcal/day — carbohydrate ~50%, fat ~30–35%, protein 1–1.5 g/kg.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q2. A 70-year-old with advanced carcinoma of the oesophagus needs total enteral nutrition. Which methods are available, and enlist tube-related, gastrointestinal, metabolic and infective complications. (Annual 2020)

Model Answer
Methods: nasogastric tube, naso-jejunal tube, percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) and feeding jejunostomy. Complicationstube-related: blockage, displacement, aspiration, oesophagitis/erosion; gastrointestinal: diarrhoea, nausea, bloating, cramps; metabolic: hyperglycaemia, electrolyte disturbance, refeeding syndrome; infective: aspiration pneumonia and tube-site infection.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q3.

  1. Name various methods of enteral nutrition.
  2. What are the complications of enteral nutrition? (Supple 2019)
Model Answer
a. Nasogastric tube, naso-jejunal tube, gastrostomy (PEG or surgical) and feeding jejunostomy.
b. Tube-related (blockage, displacement, aspiration, erosion), gastrointestinal (diarrhoea, nausea, cramps) and metabolic (hyperglycaemia, electrolyte disturbance, refeeding syndrome).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q4. A 20-year-old with corrosive oesophageal burns is unable to take orally; enteral nutrition is planned.

  1. What are the common enteral nutrition techniques?
  2. What metabolic and tube-related complications can occur? (Annual 2019)
Model Answer
a. Nasogastric tube, naso-jejunal tube, gastrostomy (PEG) and feeding jejunostomy.
b. Metabolic: hyperglycaemia, electrolyte disturbance, refeeding syndrome. Tube-related: blockage, misplacement/displacement, aspiration and mucosal erosion.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q5.

  1. What is enteral nutrition?
  2. What are various methods of enteral nutrition?
  3. Enumerate the complications. (Annual 2018)
Model Answer
a. Delivery of nutrients into the gastrointestinal tract via a tube when oral intake is inadequate but the gut is functioning.
b. Nasogastric, naso-jejunal, gastrostomy (PEG) and jejunostomy feeding.
c. Tube-related, gastrointestinal and metabolic complications (as above).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q6.

  1. How will you define enteral nutrition?
  2. Enlist different methods of enteral nutrition.
Model Answer
a. Provision of nutrition directly into the functioning gastrointestinal tract via a tube when adequate oral intake is not possible.
b. Nasogastric tube, naso-jejunal tube, gastrostomy (PEG/surgical) and feeding jejunostomy.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q7. A 50-year-old with unresectable carcinoma of the oesophagus, emaciated. Write three different ways to give him enteral nutrition. (Supple 2015)

Model Answer
(i) Nasogastric tube, (ii) gastrostomy (PEG), (iii) feeding jejunostomy.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q8. Write down at least three ways of enteral nutrition. (Supple 2014)

Model Answer
Nasogastric tube, gastrostomy (PEG) and feeding jejunostomy (a naso-jejunal tube is a fourth option).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q9. A 65-year-old with 6 months’ dysphagia has lost ~20% of body weight and needs major surgery soon.

  1. For a better surgical result, what is your point of focus at this stage?
  2. How will you execute your strategy? (Supple 2011)
Model Answer
a. Preoperative nutritional optimisation — a 20% weight loss indicates severe malnutrition, which must be corrected to reduce complications.
b. Enteral feeding via a tube or stent placed past the obstruction, giving high-calorie, high-protein feeds, correcting anaemia and electrolytes, with dietician input, over roughly 7–14 days before surgery.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q10. A 60-year-old with a malignant oesophageal stricture 35 cm from the incisors, Hb 9 g%, albumin 2 g%, tumour not involving adjacent structures; nutrition to be improved before surgery.

  1. How can he be provided with adequate enteral nutrition?
  2. Enumerate five tube-related complications. (Supple 2010)
Model Answer
a. Place an NG or naso-jejunal tube or a self-expanding stent past the stricture, or a feeding gastrostomy/jejunostomy, and give high-protein, high-calorie feeds while correcting anaemia.
b. Blockage, displacement/migration, aspiration, tube-site infection/leak, and mucosal erosion or oesophagitis.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q11. A 70-year-old with advanced carcinoma of the oesophagus needs total enteral nutrition.

  1. Which methods of total nutrition are available?
  2. Write two merits and two demerits of total enteral nutrition. (Annual 2008)
Model Answer
a. Nasogastric tube, naso-jejunal tube, gastrostomy (PEG) and feeding jejunostomy.
b. Merits: physiological and maintains gut mucosal integrity; cheaper with fewer infective complications. Demerits: risk of aspiration and diarrhoea; tube blockage/displacement, and it is not feasible if there is a proximal obstruction.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q12. What are the complications of enteral nutrition? (Annual 2022)

Model Answer
Tube-related: blockage, displacement, aspiration, mucosal erosion. Gastrointestinal: diarrhoea, nausea, cramps, bloating. Metabolic: hyperglycaemia, electrolyte disturbance and refeeding syndrome.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

3.4 Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

Q1. Enumerate the complications of total parenteral nutrition. (Supple 2018)

Model Answer
Catheter-related: pneumothorax, arterial puncture, air embolism, line sepsis, central-vein thrombosis. Metabolic: hyper-/hypoglycaemia, electrolyte disturbance, refeeding syndrome, hypertriglyceridaemia. Hepatobiliary: deranged LFTs, cholestasis, fatty liver, acalculous cholecystitis. Also gut mucosal atrophy.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q2. Give the indications of total parenteral nutrition. (Supple 2016)

Model Answer
Intestinal failure — high-output fistula, short bowel syndrome, prolonged ileus or obstruction, severe malabsorption, severe acute pancreatitis, and any situation where the gut cannot be used for >7 days or in severe malnutrition where enteral feeding is impossible.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q3. A 34-year-old presents with a high-output intestinal fistula after abdominal surgery.

  1. Write the ideal route of nutritional supplementation.
  2. Write the metabolic complications relating to the feeding regimen. (Supple 2014)
Model Answer
a. Parenteral (TPN) — to rest the bowel and reduce fistula output.
b. Hyperglycaemia, electrolyte disturbances (K, Mg, PO₄), refeeding syndrome, hypertriglyceridaemia and deranged LFTs.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q4. After laparotomy for acute abdomen, almost all the small gut was gangrenous and resected, leaving only 20 cm of jejunum.

  1. Which routes of nutrition will you choose?
  2. What are the effects of massive small-bowel resection?
  3. Name four complications of parenteral nutrition. (Annual 2014)
Model Answer
a. TPN initially (short bowel syndrome), with gradual introduction of enteral feeding as the gut adapts.
b. Short bowel syndrome — malabsorption, diarrhoea, steatorrhoea, weight loss, fluid/electrolyte loss, vitamin B₁₂ and fat-soluble vitamin deficiency, and gallstone/renal-stone formation.
c. Line sepsis, metabolic disturbance (hyperglycaemia/electrolyte), catheter thrombosis and liver dysfunction.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy / Small intestine

Q5. A 25-year-old with a high-output enteric fistula after laparotomy for typhoid perforation.

  1. Name the nutritional fluids to be given and their caloric values.
  2. Enumerate ten complications of parenteral nutrition. (Supple 2013)
Model Answer
a. Dextrose (carbohydrate, ~4 kcal/g), amino-acid solutions (protein, ~4 kcal/g) and lipid emulsions (fat, ~9 kcal/g), plus electrolytes, vitamins and trace elements.
b. Pneumothorax, haemorrhage/arterial puncture, air embolism, catheter sepsis, central-vein thrombosis, hyperglycaemia, hypoglycaemia, electrolyte imbalance, refeeding syndrome, hypertriglyceridaemia, liver dysfunction/cholestasis and gut mucosal atrophy.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q6. A young woman with oesophageal and gastric scarring after corrosive ingestion cannot tolerate oral intake and is advised TPN.

  1. What routes are available for this procedure?
  2. What are its complications? (Annual 2010)
Model Answer
a. A central vein (subclavian, internal jugular or PICC) for hyperosmolar TPN; a peripheral vein for short-term, low-osmolarity feeding.
b. Catheter-related, metabolic and hepatobiliary complications, plus gut atrophy (as listed above).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q7. A patient with advanced carcinoma of the oesophagus and severe malnutrition is planned for oesophagectomy.

  1. What combination of fluids will you use for parenteral nutrition preoperatively?
  2. Enumerate the complications of parenteral nutrition. (Annual 2009)
Model Answer
a. A combination of carbohydrate (dextrose), amino acids and lipid emulsion, with added electrolytes, vitamins and trace elements.
b. Catheter-related (pneumothorax, sepsis, thrombosis), metabolic (hyperglycaemia, electrolyte disturbance, refeeding) and hepatobiliary complications.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

Q8. A 35-year-old with a jejunal fistula from an anastomotic leak is on TPN through a central line. How would you perform biochemical monitoring? (Annual 2007)

Model Answer
Daily serum electrolytes (Na, K) and blood glucose initially; then phosphate, magnesium and calcium (watch for refeeding syndrome); regular LFTs, RFTs, full blood count, triglycerides, nitrogen balance and trace elements/zinc.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Nutrition & fluid therapy

↑ Back to topics

4. ACID BASE BALANCE

4.1 Gastric Outlet Obstruction

Q1. A 50-year-old woman with gastric outlet obstruction is vomiting profusely.

  1. Name the fluid and electrolyte disturbance.
  2. Name the acid-base imbalance.
  3. What is paradoxical aciduria?
  4. How will you correct it?
Model Answer
a. Dehydration with loss of H⁺, Cl⁻, K⁺ and Na⁺ (loss of gastric juice).
b. Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis.
c. In severe hypokalaemia/hypovolaemia the kidney excretes H⁺ (to conserve Na⁺ and K⁺), producing an acidic urine despite a systemic alkalosis.
d. IV 0.9% normal saline with potassium chloride (once urine output is established) to restore volume and replace Cl⁻/K⁺, with electrolyte monitoring.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Fluid, electrolyte & acid-base balance

Q2. A 60-year-old with gastric outlet obstruction and repeated vomiting.

  1. What is the electrolyte imbalance and its physiological basis?
  2. Mention two fluids and one investigation used to treat and monitor. (Annual 2013)
Model Answer
a. Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis — loss of HCl in vomit removes chloride and hydrogen ions; the kidney then loses K⁺ and H⁺ in exchange for retained Na⁺.
b. Fluids: 0.9% saline and potassium chloride. Investigation: serum electrolytes (with ABG).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Fluid, electrolyte & acid-base balance

Q3. A 4-week-old baby with non-bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and a positive succussion splash.

  1. Enlist the metabolic complications.
  2. How will you treat this child? (Supple 2008)
Model Answer
(This is infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.) a. Dehydration with hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis.
b. It is a medical emergency first, not a surgical one — resuscitate with IV fluid (0.9% saline with dextrose) plus KCl and correct the alkalosis and electrolytes first, pass a nasogastric tube, then perform Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy once corrected.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Paediatric surgery

Q4. A 45-year-old with vomiting, absolute constipation, abdominal pain and distension for 12 hours. What fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance would be present? (Annual 2007)

Model Answer
Dehydration/hypovolaemia from vomiting and third-space loss, with loss of Na⁺, K⁺ and Cl⁻. Acid-base: usually a metabolic alkalosis with proximal obstruction/vomiting, shifting to a metabolic acidosis if strangulation/ischaemia and severe dehydration supervene.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Intestinal obstruction

Q5. A 20-year-old with vomiting, absolute constipation, pain and distension for 3 days, having received 3 L of 5% dextrose in the last day. What fluid, electrolyte and acid-base disturbance would be present? (Model paper 2007)

Model Answer
Dehydration with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia (giving only dextrose water causes dilutional hyponatraemia), hypochloraemia, and a metabolic acid-base disturbance (alkalosis from vomiting, or acidosis if ischaemia/hypoperfusion).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Fluid balance / Intestinal obstruction

Q6. A 50-year-old smoker with 3 months of non-bilious post-meal vomiting is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.

  1. What metabolic derangements can occur?
  2. How will you correct them?
  3. What is the primary metabolic abnormality? Describe the mechanism. (Supple 2021)
Model Answer
a. Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis with dehydration (gastric outlet obstruction).
b. IV 0.9% saline with KCl, rehydration, nasogastric decompression and electrolyte/ABG monitoring.
c. The primary abnormality is loss of gastric HCl → hypochloraemia and metabolic alkalosis; the kidney then loses K⁺ and produces paradoxical aciduria.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Fluid, electrolyte & acid-base balance

4.2 Fluid Therapy

Q1. A 40-year-old recovered from earthquake debris after five days is semi-conscious after airway control in a camp hospital.

  1. Fluid and electrolyte replacement strategy when there is no obvious/concealed haemorrhage?
  2. How will you monitor the efficacy of therapy?
  3. How long will you continue it? (Annual 2011)
Model Answer
a. This is a crush injury with risk of rhabdomyolysis and hyperkalaemia — give aggressive IV crystalloids (0.9% saline) to maintain a good urine output (forced diuresis), replacing deficit, maintenance and ongoing losses, while watching potassium.
b. Monitor urine output (catheter, aim >0.5 ml/kg/h), pulse, BP, CVP, serum electrolytes (K⁺) and myoglobin/CK.
c. Continue until haemodynamics are stable, urine output is adequate and electrolytes/renal function are normal.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Fluid therapy / Trauma

4.3 Shock

Q1. A 35-year-old after a road accident is in shock.

  1. Define shock.
  2. Classify shock. (Supple 2019)
Model Answer
a. Shock is acute circulatory failure with inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation.
b. Hypovolaemic, cardiogenic, obstructive and distributive (septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q2. Define and classify shock. (Supple 2010)

Model Answer
Definition: acute circulatory failure with inadequate tissue perfusion and cellular oxygenation. Classification: hypovolaemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive (septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q3. A 19-year-old struck by a car has pulse 120, BP 100/60 and cold clammy skin.

  1. Define shock.
  2. What are the types of shock?
  3. What are two cardinal principles of managing bleeding in trauma?
Model Answer
a. Inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery from acute circulatory failure.
b. Hypovolaemic, cardiogenic, obstructive and distributive (septic/anaphylactic/neurogenic).
c. Stop the bleeding (haemorrhage control) and restore the circulating volume (fluid/blood resuscitation).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q4. A 25-year-old motorcyclist with multiple injuries — pulse 125, BP 70/50, RR 32. Define shock. (Annual 2022)

Model Answer
Shock is a life-threatening state of inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to meet cellular metabolic demand, from acute circulatory failure.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

4.4 Severity of Shock

Q1. A 30-year-old, 4 hours after a fall, is well-oriented with a deformed right upper limb, cold peripheries, pulse 100, BP 110/70.

  1. Is it compensated or decompensated shock?
  2. Enumerate the factors placing the patient in that category. (Annual 2017)
Model Answer
a. Compensated shock (Class I–II).
b. The patient is alert and oriented, blood pressure is maintained (110/70), with only mild tachycardia (100) and cold peripheries from compensatory vasoconstriction — the body is compensating and BP is preserved.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q2. A patient run over by a speeding truck has polytrauma and shock.

  1. What are the parameters of severe shock?
  2. What are the consequences of irreversible shock? (Annual 2010)
Model Answer
a. Marked tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnoea, confusion/reduced consciousness, oliguria/anuria, cold clammy skin and prolonged capillary refill (Class III–IV, >30–40% loss).
b. Multi-organ failure, cellular death and a state unresponsive to resuscitation, leading to death.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q3. A 25-year-old motorcyclist — pulse 125, BP 70/50, RR 32.

  1. Classify shock according to severity.
  2. Compare the clinical features of each type in tabulated form. (Annual 2022)
Model Answer
a. Class I (<15% loss), Class II (15–30%), Class III (30–40%), Class IV (>40%).
b. Class I: HR <100, BP normal, RR 14–20, urine >30 ml/h, slightly anxious. Class II: HR 100–120, BP normal, RR 20–30, urine 20–30, mildly anxious. Class III: HR 120–140, BP reduced, RR 30–40, urine 5–15, confused. Class IV: HR >140, BP very low, RR >35, negligible urine, lethargic.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

4.5 Haemorrhage and its Management

Q1. A 45-year-old had above-knee amputation for gas gangrene; on the 7th postoperative day massive bleeding starts from the wound.

  1. What type of haemorrhage is it?
  2. What factors are responsible?
  3. What are the principles of management?
Model Answer
a. Secondary haemorrhage (occurring after 24 h — typically 7–14 days).
b. Infection/sepsis eroding the vessel wall, a slipped ligature, and gas gangrene.
c. Resuscitate (ABC, IV fluids/blood), control the bleeding with pressure and by exploring and ligating the vessel proximally, treat the infection with antibiotics.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Haemorrhage & blood transfusion

Q2. A 30-year-old with severe abdominal and chest trauma after an RTA presents in haemorrhagic shock and is taken to theatre.

  1. What are the two main goals of damage control surgery?
  2. What are the stages of damage control surgery?
  3. What is the role of interventional radiology in torso trauma? (Annual 2022)
Model Answer
a. To arrest haemorrhage and control contamination, limiting the physiological insult (the “lethal triad” of hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy).
b. (i) Abbreviated laparotomy to control bleeding and contamination (with packing); (ii) ICU resuscitation to correct hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy; (iii) planned re-operation for definitive repair/reconstruction.
c. Angioembolisation of solid-organ or pelvic bleeding — minimally invasive haemorrhage control.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Torso trauma / Damage control surgery

4.6 Hypovolaemic (Haemorrhagic) Shock

Q1. A 35-year-old after multiple injuries — pulse 140, BP 80/60, tense tender abdomen.

  1. What is the type of shock?
  2. How do you quickly assess for abdominal visceral injury?
Model Answer
a. Hypovolaemic (haemorrhagic) shock.
b. FAST ultrasound or DPL at the bedside, CT if stable, and clinical examination; an unstable patient with a positive FAST needs laparotomy.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock / Abdominal trauma

Q2. A 25-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma is shocked (BP 70/40, pulse 124), abdomen tender in the left upper quadrant.

  1. Which solid organ is most likely injured?
  2. Write the grading of injury of this organ.
  3. What management if you find > grade 4 injury? (Annual 2020)
Model Answer
a. The spleen.
b. AAST grades: I subcapsular haematoma <10% / laceration <1 cm; II 10–50% haematoma / 1–3 cm; III >50% or >3 cm; IV laceration involving segmental/hilar vessels with >25% devascularisation; V shattered spleen or hilar vascular injury.
c. A high-grade injury with instability requires splenectomy with resuscitation; give post-splenectomy vaccination against encapsulated organisms.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — The spleen / Abdominal trauma

Q3. A 30-year-old semi-conscious man with an incised neck wound — pulse 115, systolic BP 50 mmHg. What is the traditional classification of haemorrhagic shock? (Supple 2018)

Model Answer
Four classes by percentage blood loss — Class I <15%, Class II 15–30%, Class III 30–40%, Class IV >40% — with progressively rising heart rate/respiratory rate, falling blood pressure and urine output, and deteriorating mental status.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Haemorrhage & shock

Q4. A 40-year-old bank cashier in shock had 10 days of high fever, severe bone pain and haemorrhagic spots, used NSAIDs at home, and bled on brushing his teeth.

  1. What is your suspicion and three first-line measures?
  2. How will you manage him after the first hour? (Supple 2011)
Model Answer
a. Dengue haemorrhagic fever/shock with thrombocytopenia. First-line: IV fluid resuscitation, platelet transfusion if bleeding/very low counts, and supportive care — avoid NSAIDs.
b. Monitor platelet count and haematocrit and fluid balance (watch for plasma leak); transfuse packed cells if bleeding, give FFP/platelets as needed, and move to ICU if shocked.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock / Haemorrhagic fever

Q5. A 45-year-old mother with dengue fever — temperature 100°F, pulse 110, platelets 70 × 10⁹. Enlist five management steps. (Annual 2011)

Model Answer
(i) Admit and monitor vitals, haematocrit and platelet count; (ii) IV fluids (carefully — watch for plasma leakage); (iii) avoid NSAIDs and IM injections; (iv) platelet/blood transfusion if bleeding or counts critically low; (v) supportive care (paracetamol) and watch for warning signs of shock.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock / Haemorrhagic fever

Q6. A 20-year-old with multiple injuries after an RTA — pulse 120 and thready, BP 90/60, difficult respiration and sweating.

  1. What is the diagnosis?
  2. How would you treat this case? (Supple 2007)
Model Answer
a. Hypovolaemic (haemorrhagic) shock.
b. ABC with high-flow oxygen, two wide-bore IV cannulae, warmed crystalloids/blood, control of the bleeding source, urinary catheter, and continuous monitoring.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

4.7 Septic Shock

Q1. What are the clinical features of septic shock? (Supple 2017)

Model Answer
Fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, hypotension refractory to fluids, tachypnoea, warm flushed skin early (cold and clammy later), altered mental status, oliguria, raised white-cell count and lactate, with features of the source of infection.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock / Sepsis

Q2. A 50-year-old after laparotomy for typhoid perforation develops tachycardia, hypotension and oliguria on day 3; Hb 12 g/dl, WCC 22,000/dl.

  1. What is the probable cause?
  2. Outline the principles of management. (Annual 2013)
Model Answer
a. Septic shock from an anastomotic/repair leak causing intra-abdominal sepsis (peritonitis).
b. Resuscitate (IV fluids, oxygen), take cultures and start early broad-spectrum antibiotics, achieve source control (drainage/re-laparotomy), add vasopressors if needed, and manage in ICU (Surviving Sepsis approach with lactate monitoring).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock / Sepsis

4.8 Obstructive Shock

Q1. How would you resuscitate a 20-year-old who has gone into shock after blunt chest and abdominal trauma? (Supple 2013)

Model Answer
Follow ABCDE — high-flow oxygen, secure the airway, and treat immediately life-threatening obstructive causes (tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade); gain IV access, give warmed fluids/blood, control bleeding, perform FAST, and insert a chest drain if indicated.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Torso trauma / Shock

Q2. A 50-year-old struck on the right chest develops rapidly progressive dyspnoea; extremities cold and clammy, pulse 110, BP 90/60, with tracheal and apex-beat shift to the left.

  1. What type of shock has developed and why?
  2. What other conditions can cause the same category of shock? (Supple 2010)
Model Answer
a. Obstructive shock due to a tension pneumothorax — rising intrathoracic pressure shifts the mediastinum, kinks the great veins and reduces venous return/cardiac output.
b. Cardiac tamponade and massive pulmonary embolism (also tension pneumothorax).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Torso trauma / Shock

4.9 Shock Monitoring

Q1. A 35-year-old after an RTA is in shock. How will you monitor him? (Supple 2019)

Model Answer
Pulse, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, urine output (catheter), conscious level, temperature, capillary refill, CVP, and ABG/lactate, with continuous ECG.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q2. A 30-year-old with an incised neck wound — pulse 115, systolic BP 50. What are the minimum and additional modalities to monitor a shocked patient? (Supple 2018)

Model Answer
Minimum: pulse, BP, respiratory rate, SpO₂, urine output, conscious level and ECG. Additional: CVP, invasive arterial BP, lactate/ABG, cardiac-output monitoring and central venous oxygen saturation.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

Q3. A 21-year-old with a right-chest stab wound (pulse 120, BP 90/60, pallor) is given crystalloids; 30 minutes later pulse is 90 and BP 105/70.

  1. What is the dynamic fluid response and its interpretation?
  2. How will you monitor perfusion? Give four points. (Annual 2014)
Model Answer
a. The response of vitals to a fluid bolus: responders improve and stay improved (adequately resuscitated — as in this patient), transient responders improve then deteriorate (ongoing bleeding needing surgery), and non-responders do not improve (severe ongoing loss or another type of shock).
b. Urine output, conscious level, capillary refill/peripheral perfusion, and lactate/base deficit (with CVP).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Shock & resuscitation

4.10 Indications of Blood Transfusion

Q1. Give three indications of blood transfusion. (Supple 2015)

Model Answer
(i) Acute blood loss / haemorrhagic shock (>30% volume loss); (ii) symptomatic anaemia (Hb <7–8 g/dl); (iii) perioperative replacement of significant blood loss (also exchange transfusion and correction of specific deficiencies).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

4.11 Complications of Blood Transfusion

Q1. A 35-year-old after multiple injuries — pulse 140, BP 80/60, tense tender abdomen.

  1. Enumerate three complications with a single transfusion.
  2. Enumerate four complications of massive transfusion.
Model Answer
a. Febrile non-haemolytic reaction, allergic/urticarial reaction, and acute haemolytic (ABO-incompatibility) reaction (also transfusion-transmitted infection, TRALI).
b. Hypothermia, hypocalcaemia (citrate toxicity), hyperkalaemia and coagulopathy (dilutional thrombocytopenia/clotting-factor deficiency) — also metabolic acidosis and ARDS.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

Q2. A patient after cholecystectomy is started on a transfusion; you notice mismatched/incompatible blood.

  1. What is the management?
  2. What measures prevent this in future? (Annual 2018)
Model Answer
a. Stop the transfusion immediately, keep the line open with saline, maintain ABC; recheck the patient and unit identity; send patient and unit samples for repeat cross-match and Coombs test; monitor for haemolysis and renal failure; maintain urine output with fluids (± diuretic); treat hyperkalaemia/DIC; and inform the blood bank.
b. Correct patient identification, proper cross-matching, bedside pre-transfusion checks and strict labelling protocols.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

Q3. A 65-year-old with O-positive blood is to undergo a Whipple’s operation needing multiple transfusions. What complications of blood transfusion can occur? (Supple 2015)

Model Answer
Immune: haemolytic, febrile and allergic reactions, TRALI. Infective: hepatitis B/C, HIV, CMV. Massive transfusion: hypothermia, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia and coagulopathy; also iron overload.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

Q4. A 40-year-old with intra-abdominal bleeding received five pints of blood during and after liver-injury repair. Mention any three complications of a single transfusion. (Annual 2015)

Model Answer
Febrile non-haemolytic reaction, allergic/urticarial reaction and acute haemolytic (ABO-incompatibility) reaction (also transfusion-transmitted infection).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

Q5. An ABO-incompatible transfusion was given to a young man by clerical error (~10 ml before it was stopped); he is shivering, febrile and has loin pain.

  1. How would you deal with this in the immediate phase?
  2. Enlist the infectious complications of blood transfusion. (Supple 2014)
Model Answer
a. Stop the transfusion immediately, keep the line open with saline, maintain ABC, recheck identity, send samples (patient + unit) for repeat cross-match/Coombs, maintain urine output, monitor for and treat haemolysis/renal failure/hyperkalaemia, and inform the blood bank.
b. Hepatitis B, hepatitis C, HIV, CMV, syphilis, malaria, bacterial contamination and (rarely) vCJD.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

Q6. An 8-year-old given whole blood after major abdominal surgery develops severe headache, fever and a rapidly spreading urticarial rash 5 minutes into transfusion.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. Enumerate the initial treatment steps.
  3. How can this be prevented? (Annual 2012)
Model Answer
a. An allergic/anaphylactic transfusion reaction.
b. Stop the transfusion, maintain airway and IV saline, give an antihistamine and hydrocortisone, add adrenaline if anaphylaxis, and give oxygen.
c. Antihistamine premedication, use of washed/leucodepleted red cells, and avoiding unnecessary transfusion.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

Q7. A 65-year-old with O-positive blood is to undergo a Whipple’s operation with multiple transfusions. Which infectious complications can occur? (Annual 2008)

Model Answer
Hepatitis B, hepatitis C, HIV, CMV, syphilis, malaria, bacterial contamination and (rarely) vCJD.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion

4.12 Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

Q1. What treatment steps are suitable for coagulopathy after massive blood transfusion? (Annual 2015)

Model Answer
Treat the underlying cause; give fresh frozen plasma (clotting factors), platelet transfusion and cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen); keep the patient warm; correct acidosis and calcium; and consider tranexamic acid — guided by the coagulation profile and fibrinogen level.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Blood transfusion / Coagulation

↑ Back to topics

5. ANAESTHESIA & PAIN MANAGEMENT

5.1 General Anaesthesia (GA)

Q1. A 50-year-old with a left parotid swelling; FNAC shows pleomorphic adenoma.

  1. Which anaesthesia is suitable, and its steps?
  2. Give two common complications. (Supple 2020)
Model Answer
a. General anaesthesia. Steps: preoperative assessment and fasting → premedication → induction (IV agent e.g. propofol) → secure airway by endotracheal intubation with a muscle relaxant → maintenance (inhalational agent with O₂ ± N₂O and analgesia) → monitoring → reversal and recovery.
b. Sore throat/airway trauma and postoperative nausea and vomiting (also aspiration, dental injury).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q2. What are the techniques for maintaining the airway during general anaesthesia? (Supple 2016)

Model Answer
Face mask, oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway, laryngeal mask airway (LMA), and endotracheal intubation (and other supraglottic devices).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q3. A 35-year-old fit woman with acute cholecystitis is planned for early laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

  1. What type of anaesthesia is preferred?
  2. Name the triad of this anaesthesia.
  3. Name the layers a spinal needle passes through. (Annual 2014)
Model Answer
a. General anaesthesia with endotracheal intubation (needed for the pneumoperitoneum).
b. The triad of GA — hypnosis (unconsciousness), analgesia and muscle relaxation.
c. A spinal needle passes: skin → subcutaneous tissue → supraspinous ligament → interspinous ligament → ligamentum flavum → epidural space → dura → arachnoid → subarachnoid (CSF) space.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q4. A 25-year-old teacher is undergoing subtotal thyroidectomy for primary thyrotoxicosis (Graves’ disease).

  1. What anaesthesia is necessary for a safe procedure?
  2. What measures ensure a better outcome (as anaesthetist)?
  3. Give the steps you would take during the procedure. (Annual 2011)
Model Answer
a. General anaesthesia with a cuffed endotracheal tube.
b. Ensure the patient is euthyroid before surgery (antithyroid drugs, β-blockers, Lugol’s iodine) to avoid a thyroid storm; assess the airway for tracheal compression by the goitre; plan a smooth induction.
c. Preoxygenation → IV induction → intubation with a reinforced tube → maintenance with an inhalational agent and relaxant → careful monitoring → careful extubation checking cord function and for tracheomalacia.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia / The thyroid gland

Q5. A 40-year-old with an acute abdomen is planned for laparotomy.

  1. What are the objectives of the anaesthetist to facilitate surgery?
  2. Give the advantages of general anaesthesia. (Annual 2010)
Model Answer
a. Rapid sequence induction (full stomach — aspiration risk), a secure airway, adequate analgesia, good muscle relaxation, and maintenance of haemodynamics with resuscitation.
b. Complete unconsciousness with airway control, good muscle relaxation for laparotomy, controlled ventilation, no time limit, and patient comfort.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q6. What is the general anaesthesia triad? (Supple 2018)

Model Answer
Hypnosis (unconsciousness), analgesia and muscle relaxation.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

5.2 Local & Regional Anaesthesia

Q1. A 70-year-old man, fit for surgery, presents with a left inguinal hernia.

  1. Which anaesthesia is most suitable and commonly used for hernioplasty?
  2. Enumerate four complications of this technique.
  3. What measures avoid the common complications? (Annual 2020)
Model Answer
a. Local anaesthesia (field block) — commonly used for hernioplasty, especially in the unfit elderly (spinal is an alternative).
b. Local anaesthetic toxicity (CNS/cardiac), allergic reaction, haematoma, nerve injury, inadequate analgesia and intravascular injection.
c. Aspirate before injecting, use a weight-based safe dose, add adrenaline (prolongs effect and reduces toxicity — not in end-artery areas), and monitor the patient.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia / Local anaesthesia

Q2. A 40-year-old with a right wrist ganglion is to be operated under Bier’s block.

  1. Write a brief note on intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier’s block).
  2. What are the common techniques for local anaesthesia? (Supple 2019)
Model Answer
a. Bier’s block: the limb is exsanguinated and a double tourniquet applied, then dilute local anaesthetic (e.g. prilocaine/lignocaine) is injected intravenously distal to the tourniquet to anaesthetise the limb for short procedures. The tourniquet must stay inflated ≥20 minutes — early release risks systemic toxicity.
b. Topical/surface, infiltration, field block, nerve block, IV regional (Bier’s), spinal and epidural.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia / Local anaesthesia

Q3. A 25-year-old is to have varicose-vein surgery of the left lower limb under spinal anaesthesia.

  1. What are the complications of this procedure?
  2. How does spinal differ from epidural anaesthesia? (Annual 2018)
Model Answer
a. Hypotension, bradycardia, post-dural-puncture headache, total spinal, urinary retention, backache, nerve injury and infection (meningitis).
b. Spinal — single injection into the subarachnoid space (CSF), small volume, rapid dense block, given below L2. Epidural — into the epidural space, larger volume, slower onset, a catheter allows continuous block at any level, and the block is less dense.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q4. A 30-year-old in labour requests epidural anaesthesia.

  1. Describe the method of giving epidural analgesia.
  2. Mention three complications. (Supple 2017)
Model Answer
a. With the patient sitting or in the lateral position and full asepsis, infiltrate local anaesthetic, insert a Tuohy needle into the epidural space (identified by loss of resistance), thread a catheter, give a test dose, then inject incremental local anaesthetic ± opioid.
b. Hypotension, post-dural-puncture headache, and a patchy/failed block (also LA toxicity, motor block, infection).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q5. What is spinal headache? (Supple 2016)

Model Answer
Post-dural-puncture headache — caused by CSF leak through the dural puncture. It is postural (worse on sitting/standing, relieved by lying flat), frontal/occipital, and is treated with hydration, analgesia, caffeine and, if severe, an epidural blood patch.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q6. Mention three indications of epidural anaesthesia. (Supple 2016)

Model Answer
Labour analgesia; postoperative analgesia after abdominal/thoracic surgery; and lower-limb or lower-abdominal surgery (also chronic pain management).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q7.

  1. Name the different types of regional anaesthesia.
  2. Name three complications of spinal anaesthesia.
  3. Write the steps in treating spinal headache. (Annual 2016)
Model Answer
a. Spinal, epidural, caudal, peripheral nerve block, plexus block, IV regional (Bier’s) and field block.
b. Hypotension, post-dural-puncture headache, and total spinal/high block (also urinary retention).
c. Bed rest, hydration (IV fluids), analgesia, caffeine, and an epidural blood patch if severe.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q8. A young woman with a 2×2 cm swelling on the flexor forearm needs excision biopsy but refuses all forms of general anaesthesia.

  1. What is the most suitable regional anaesthesia?
  2. Name two drugs used and their maximum safe dose.
  3. Enlist at least four complications. (Supple 2014)
Model Answer
a. IV regional (Bier’s block) or a brachial plexus block / local infiltration.
b. Lignocaine (max 3 mg/kg, or 7 mg/kg with adrenaline) and bupivacaine (max 2 mg/kg) — prilocaine (6 mg/kg) is preferred for Bier’s block.
c. LA systemic toxicity (CNS seizures, cardiac arrhythmia), allergy, haematoma, nerve injury, tourniquet complications and an inadequate block.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia / Local anaesthesia

Q9. A 60-kg woman is to have a forearm lipoma removed under local anaesthesia.

  1. Name two local anaesthetic agents and their doses for her.
  2. Mention five important complications of local anaesthetics. (Supple 2013)
Model Answer
a. Lignocaine — 3 mg/kg (~200 mg plain, up to ~500 mg / 7 mg/kg with adrenaline); bupivacaine — 2 mg/kg (~120 mg).
b. Allergic reaction; systemic toxicity (perioral tingling, seizures, arrhythmia/cardiac arrest); haematoma; nerve injury; infection; and inadequate anaesthesia.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia / Local anaesthesia

Q10. A 70-year-old man, unfit for GA, is to have a right inguinal herniorrhaphy under regional anaesthesia.

  1. What is regional anaesthesia, and two advantages over GA?
  2. Mention two types with their complications. (Annual 2013)
Model Answer
a. Regional anaesthesia is reversible loss of sensation in a region by blocking nerve conduction. Advantages over GA: avoids airway/GA risks (good for the unfit/elderly) and gives good postoperative analgesia with less nausea, patient awake.
b. Spinal (hypotension, post-dural-puncture headache) and local field block (LA toxicity, haematoma) — epidural is a further option.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q11. A 65-year-old, hypertensive (controlled) and diet-controlled diabetic with a reducible right inguinal hernia is planned for repair.

  1. What anaesthetic techniques can be used?
  2. Which one is preferred, briefly?
Model Answer
a. General anaesthesia, spinal, epidural or local field block.
b. A local field block or spinal is preferred — it avoids the risks of GA in a comorbid patient, gives good analgesia and allows early recovery.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q12. A 25-year-old is planned for anorectal surgery under spinal anaesthesia.

  1. What is the most appropriate site for injection and why?
  2. Enlist the complications of spinal anaesthesia. (Annual 2009)
Model Answer
a. The L3–L4 or L4–L5 interspace — below the termination of the spinal cord (L1–L2), so the cord is not injured; a “saddle block” is ideal for anorectal surgery.
b. Hypotension, bradycardia, post-dural-puncture headache, urinary retention, total spinal, backache and infection.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q13. A 20-year-old is to undergo right herniorrhaphy.

  1. What anaesthetic techniques can be employed?
  2. Write one merit and one demerit of each. (Supple 2008)
Model Answer
GA — merit: airway control and comfort; demerit: systemic effects and PONV. Spinal — merit: good relaxation/analgesia while awake; demerit: hypotension and post-dural-puncture headache. Local field block — merit: safe with early discharge; demerit: toxicity and possible inadequate block.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q14. A 20-year-old is to have a left inguinal herniorrhaphy under regional anaesthesia.

  1. What regional techniques are available?
  2. Describe any one of them. (Annual 2008)
Model Answer
a. Spinal, epidural, ilioinguinal/iliohypogastric nerve block, and field block.
b. Spinal anaesthesia: with asepsis and the patient sitting/lateral, a spinal needle is inserted at L3–L4 into the subarachnoid space, free CSF flow is confirmed, local anaesthetic is injected, and the block level is checked.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia

Q15. A 25-year-old is to undergo elective right inguinal hernioplasty.

  1. What are the different options for anaesthesia?
  2. Describe the complications of local anaesthesia. (Supple 2021)
Model Answer
a. General anaesthesia, spinal, epidural or local field block.
b. Systemic toxicity (perioral numbness, seizures; cardiac arrhythmia/arrest), allergy, haematoma, nerve injury and methaemoglobinaemia (with prilocaine).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Anaesthesia / Local anaesthesia

5.3 Pain

Q1. A 60-year-old, 6 hours after TURP for carcinoma of the prostate, complains of pain.

  1. Name the different types of chronic pain.
  2. Briefly mention the options for controlling pain in malignant disease. (Supple 2018)
Model Answer
a. Nociceptive (somatic and visceral), neuropathic and mixed pain.
b. The WHO analgesic ladder (non-opioid → weak opioid → strong opioid, ± adjuvants), nerve/plexus blocks, radiotherapy and palliative measures.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Pain management

Q2. What are the options for controlling severe pain in malignant disease?

Model Answer
The WHO analgesic ladder (paracetamol/NSAID → codeine → morphine, with adjuvants), strong opioids (morphine), nerve/plexus blocks (e.g. coeliac plexus), radiotherapy, chemotherapy and holistic palliative care.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Pain management

Q3. A middle-aged woman with locally advanced right breast carcinoma is in agony from severe intractable pain.

  1. What is the WHO pain step-ladder?
  2. Which painkiller should be selected for this patient?
Model Answer
a. A three-step approach: Step 1 non-opioid (paracetamol/NSAID) ± adjuvant; Step 2 weak opioid (codeine) ± non-opioid/adjuvant; Step 3 strong opioid (morphine) ± non-opioid/adjuvant.
b. A strong opioid (morphine) ± adjuvant — Step 3, as she has severe pain.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Pain management

Q4. A 40-year-old with severe pain after radical gastrectomy is put on patient-controlled analgesia.

  1. What is patient-controlled analgesia?
  2. How is it administered?
  3. What are its advantages?
Model Answer
a. PCA — the patient self-administers a preset dose of IV opioid through a programmed pump.
b. Via an IV pump delivering a bolus dose with a lockout interval (± a background infusion) when the patient presses a button.
c. Better pain control and patient autonomy, avoidance of peaks and troughs, less delay, a lower total dose and greater patient satisfaction.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Pain management

Q5. A 66-year-old with unresectable carcinoma of the body of the pancreas has severe abdominal pain.

  1. What is the most likely cause of this pain?
  2. What percutaneous neurolytic technique can relieve it?
  3. Describe the WHO pain management ladder. (Annual 2021)
Model Answer
a. Infiltration of the coeliac plexus by tumour (retroperitoneal spread).
b. Coeliac plexus block/neurolysis (with alcohol or phenol).
c. The three-step WHO ladder — non-opioid → weak opioid → strong opioid, each ± adjuvants.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Pain management

Q6. A 65-year-old with haematuria, generalized bone pain and anaemia is diagnosed with advanced carcinoma of the prostate.

  1. What are the different methods to control severe pain in this malignant disease?
  2. What is the WHO analgesic ladder?
Model Answer
a. WHO-ladder analgesics/opioids, bisphosphonates for bone pain, radiotherapy for bone metastases, hormonal therapy, and nerve blocks.
b. The three-step ladder — non-opioid (± adjuvant) → weak opioid → strong opioid (± adjuvant).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Pain management

↑ Back to topics

6. SURGICAL & SPECIAL INFECTIONS

6.1 Aseptic Techniques & Sterilization

Q1.

  1. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?
  2. Enlist four common methods of sterilization with an example of each.
  3. How are disposable articles sterilized? (Supple 2017)
Model Answer
a. Sterilization is the complete destruction/removal of all microorganisms including spores; disinfection reduces or removes pathogenic organisms but not necessarily spores.
b. Moist heat (autoclave — instruments/drapes); dry heat (hot-air oven — glassware/powders); chemical (ethylene oxide or glutaraldehyde — endoscopes/heat-sensitive items); radiation (gamma — sutures/syringes).
c. Disposable items are sterilized industrially by gamma irradiation.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection / Sterilization

Q2. The hospital infection-control team is concerned about increased infection in the main operating theatre and asks for your recommendations. Enlist 10 points of concern. (Supple 2011)

Model Answer
(i) HEPA-filtered/laminar airflow ventilation; (ii) positive-pressure theatre; (iii) restricted traffic and minimal personnel; (iv) proper theatre attire (masks, caps, gowns); (v) thorough hand scrubbing; (vi) correct skin preparation; (vii) properly sterilized/autoclaved instruments; (viii) appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis; (ix) regular surface/air disinfection and sterilization monitoring; (x) proper waste disposal, screening of staff carriers, and avoidance of preoperative shaving.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q3. After surgery on an infected case, how will you ensure the safe reuse of the instruments for the next operation? (Supple 2008)

Model Answer
First clean and decontaminate the instruments to remove all organic matter, then sterilize by autoclaving; single-use items are discarded; theatre surfaces are disinfected. Special (prion) protocols are used where indicated.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection / Sterilization

6.2 Surgical Site Infections (SSI)

Q1. A 30-year-old, otherwise healthy, after open cholecystectomy develops severe induration on day 4 with pus pouring out; the wound is opened and repeatedly debrided.

  1. Can you name this infection?
  2. Name the simple steps to avoid such infections. (Annual 2017)
Model Answer
a. A surgical site infection — the aggressive picture with repeated debridement suggests a necrotising soft-tissue infection (necrotising fasciitis).
b. Aseptic technique, antibiotic prophylaxis, correct skin preparation, good glycaemic control, gentle tissue handling, maintaining normothermia, avoiding haematoma, and appropriate wound care.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q2. Various methods are used to avoid wound infection.

  1. Classify wounds according to the risk of infection.
  2. Give an example of each type and the risk with or without antibiotic prophylaxis. (Supple 2016)
Model Answer
a & b. Clean (e.g. hernia/thyroid; <2%); clean-contaminated (e.g. elective bowel/biliary; ~5–10%); contaminated (e.g. fresh trauma/open fracture; ~15–20%); dirty (e.g. perforated bowel/abscess; >30–40%). Prophylactic antibiotics reduce these rates in all but simple clean wounds.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q3.

  1. Name the factors that determine whether a wound gets infected.
  2. How will you treat a 20-year-old with wound infection after appendectomy? (Supple 2016)
Model Answer
a. The dose and virulence of the organisms versus host resistance, plus local wound factors (blood supply, dead space, haematoma, foreign body, tissue ischaemia). [Infection ∝ (bacterial load × virulence) ÷ host resistance.]
b. Open and drain the pus, remove sutures, send pus for culture/sensitivity, regular dressings, antibiotics if there is cellulitis/systemic upset, and allow healing by secondary intention.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q4.

  1. What factors increase the risk of surgical site infection?
  2. What preoperative measures minimize SSI? (Annual 2016)
Model Answer
a. Patient factors: diabetes, obesity, malnutrition, smoking, immunosuppression, old age. Operative factors: prolonged surgery, contamination, poor technique, haematoma, foreign body, hypothermia.
b. Control diabetes, optimise nutrition, stop smoking, treat existing infection, antiseptic shower, avoid shaving (use clippers), proper skin preparation, and give prophylactic antibiotic at induction.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q5. What scoring system(s) are used for wound-infection classification? (Annual 2015)

Model Answer
The wound class (clean → dirty), the NNIS risk index, the ASEPSIS score, the SENIC index, and the Southampton wound-grading system.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q6.

  1. Describe surgical site infections.
  2. Write four ways to avoid SSI. (Annual 2014)
Model Answer
a. An SSI is infection at the operative site within 30 days of surgery (or 1 year if an implant is present); it may be superficial incisional, deep incisional, or organ/space.
b. Aseptic technique/sterilization, prophylactic antibiotics, good glycaemic control, careful tissue handling with haemostasis (also normothermia and skin preparation).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q7. A 15-year-old develops wound infection on day 5 after appendectomy.

  1. What type of wound is it?
  2. Classify the surgical wounds and give examples. (Supple 2013)
Model Answer
a. Clean-contaminated (appendectomy) — it becomes contaminated/dirty if the appendix is perforated.
b. Clean (hernia/thyroid), clean-contaminated (elective bowel/biliary), contaminated (fresh trauma), dirty (perforated bowel/abscess).
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

Q8. On the 4th day after surgery for a perforated appendix, a 30-year-old has increasing wound pain, with redness and swelling, pulse 100, temperature 100°F, BP 130/70.

  1. What is the doctor’s first step, with the suspected diagnosis?
  2. How should he subsequently manage this patient? (Annual 2011)
Model Answer
a. Suspect a wound (surgical site) infection — the first step is to open the wound / remove sutures and drain the pus, sending it for culture/sensitivity.
b. Antibiotics if there is cellulitis or systemic upset, regular dressings with the wound left to heal by secondary intention, analgesia, monitoring, and control of any comorbidity.
Bailey & Love, 28th ed — Surgical infection

↑ Back to topics

7. SOLVED UNIVERSITY SEQs — GENERAL SURGERY

Solved SEQ bank for MBBS & BDS — answers as provided in the source compilation.

SEQ 1. A 25 years old poultry farm worker is brought with inability to open his mouth for last three days. He had injury on his right foot ten days ago but kept working bare footed in farm without treatment.

  1. What is the diagnosis on high index of suspicion?
  2. Outline the management plan with prognosis?
Key / Answer
a. Tetanus
b. Management Plan: Isolation, quietness and comfort, drainage of pus and wound toilet will be needed. Human anti-tetanus globulin is given intramuscularly to limit the effects of free toxins and should be used in doses of 25—500 units to give cover throughout the period of establishing active immunity by giving toxoid. A seriously ill patient, with dysphagia and reflex spasm, will need to have a nasogastric tube passed and seda-tion continued. The diet, the need for intravenous nutrition, the maintenance of balanced protein intake, and of renal function and cardiac function will be priorities. A tracheosto-my should be considered if the patient has any difficulty in breathing. The meticulous care of the tracheostomy tube includes suction and humidification
Prognosis 30-40 % mortality in moderate to severe disease

SEQ 2. A 15 years old school girl presents with 2×2 cm nodule on her left supraclavicular region for the last four months. She is having sweats at night and her sputum contains blood. She has lost about 10% of her body weight meanwhile.

  1. What is the likely disease causing swelling in her neck?
  2. How will you investigate her problem? Enumerate the necessary ones only.
  3. Name three components of management?
Key / Answer
a. Tuberculosis lymphadenitis (cold Abscess)
b. Sputum for AFB and malignant cell, X-Ray chest, FNAC or Excision biopsy swelling, ESR, Base line Liver function test and ophthalmoscopy
d. confirmation of diseases, Nutrition and hygiene, Antituberculosis Drugs , Follow up to see response and any side effects of drugs

SEQ 3. A 40 years old garment factory worker reports with 1×1 cm ulcer on right side of her oral cavity since two months. She is a habitual of pan eater. She also notices a 0 .5xo.5 cm nodule on upper part of neck on same side. The surgeon examines and advises.

  1. What is his main suspicion
  2. Why has he come to this conclusion
  3. How should he proceed scientifically for the best results of treatment
Key / Answer
a. Carcinoma of oral cavity
b. because the ulcer has enlarged neck node and she has risk factor of pan eating
c. Incisional biopsy of the ulcer, FNAC of cervical nodule, CT scans Head and Neck, MRI, USG abdomen,

SEQ 4. Six days after exploratory laparotomy for perforated appendix, 50 years old diabetic lady with moon face, looks toxic and has gangrene developing around her abdominal wound. As attending surgeon

  1. What is your main concern regarding the illness
  2. Your diagnosis is further strengthened by the presence of which specific features
  3. In few words outline the management
Key / Answer
a. Synergistic gangrene with septicemia
b. Diabetes mellitus, Cushing's syndrome, old age lady
c. Broad spectrum antibiotics (Benzyl penicillin, Metronidazole, Gentamycin ) Debridement of wound, control of blood sugar, monitoring of vital sign and intake and Output charting, Blood transfusion, secondary wound closure or skin cover by grafting is Only attempted after infection has been completely eradicated and health granulation Tissue has formed.

SEQ 5. A 77 years old house wife presents with 5×5 cm swelling on right side of neck which moves with deglutition .she has a normal voice and some difficulty in swallowing. Her pulse is 78 per minutes. She is not using any drugs.

  1. What investigations you will ask for in this patient
  2. What diagnosis on one investigation can lead to suggestion of an operation
  3. Name three complications which can result from operation for this problem
Key / Answer
a. Thyroid function test, FNAC, Indirect laryngoscopy, X-Rays thorax inlet
b. If FNAC swelling shows malignancy
c. Hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, injury to recurrent laryngeal nerve, recurrence of Disease, hemorrhage (primary or reactionary)

SEQ 6. for reducing the infection rate in Operation Theater, the hospital infection control committee has given six point instructions for all to observe. Please reproduce them here

Key / Answer
1. proper scrubbing
2. proper gowning and gloving
3. reduce inappropriate movement in theater and reduce too many people in theater
4. Reduce contaminations of instruments by unscrubbed persons.
5. ventilatory system should be laminar air flow
6. Proper skin preparation
7. 7) proper draping
8. 8) follow the universal precaution

SEQ 7. A 35 years old school teacher comes to surgical outpatient department with a uniform swelling of 6×6 cm in front of neck. She has prominent eyes. Her pulse is 120/min. she is not using any medications.

  1. Enumerate the clinical tests to complete your evaluation
  2. Enlist the investigations in order of priority
  3. Give immediate management in maximum of six lines
Key / Answer
a. Inspection of swelling, palpation of swelling, percussion and auscultation
Eye signs, pulse, tremor, reflexes
b. Thyroid function test, thyroid antibodies, Thyroid Scan
c. Tab propranolol
Tab Neomercazole
Lugol’s Iodine

SEQ 8. A 12 years old school boy comes with a bluish swelling 2×2 cm in size lifting his tongue upward and on left side. On examination it feels soft.

  1. What is your likely diagnosis with closest differential diagnosis with some points
  2. How will you treat this case
Key / Answer
a. Ranula. Differential diagnosis is hemangioma, lymphangioma (undersurface of tongue) as Both are cystic and compressible, sublingual dermoid cyst, mucous retention cyst, tumor of sublingual gland is firm in consistency
b. Excision of the sublingual gland or Marsupialization of the swelling

SEQ 9. A 35 year old shopkeeper’s presents with discharging point on his right cheek

  1. What will be essential clinical examination in this case
  2. How will you proceed with the most appropriate treatment
Key / Answer
a. The clinical examination consist of inspection (number, position, opening of sinus or fistula, discharge and surrounding skin) palpation (tenderness, wall of sinus, mobility and lump) examination with probe and examination of oral cavity and draining lymph nodes
b. First confirm the diagnosis by relevant investigation, cytology and culture of discharge, sinogram or fistulogram, MRI Treatment according to the diagnosis, osteomyelitis, parotid fistula, actinomycosis, sebaceous cyst, and tuberculosis sinus

SEQ 10. A 13 years old school boy brought after a highway traffic accident three hours ago. He bears an abrasion and bruise on right upper quadrant of abdomen. He has a pulse of 100/min and blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, complains of pain in abdomen. He narrates the whole story of accident

  1. What will you immediately do
  2. What will be your next step
  3. Outline the subsequent management plan
Key / Answer
a. Primary survey and resuscitation consists of assessment of airway with control of airway. Assessment of breathing and maintenance of circulation with crystalloid fluid, appropriate analgesia, antibiotics and tetanus toxoid. intake and output charting by indwelling Foley's catheter. Secondary survey and thorough examination of abdomen
b. Next step is if patient vitally stable then request for relevant investigations, USG abdomen, Radiograph chest and abdomen, CT scan if needed, base line investigations, screened cross matched blood
c. Management plan is according to the status of patient
Monitoring of the vital sign pulse, temperature, respiratory rate, blood pressure Measurement of abdominal girth ½ hourly, serial examinations of abdomen for Increasing tenderness or guarding or absence of bowel sounds and any signs of internal Bleeding, Keep nil per oral, Pass Nasogastric tube for aspiration and Foley's catheter for Urine output, intravenous fluids, analgesia and antibiotics. Local management of Abrasion if response to conservative treatment then continues the treatment. If Deterioration occurs then surgical intervention in the form of exploratory laparotomy i Needed.

SEQ 11. In May, A 20 year old student complains of pain in his right axilla for five days. On examination his axilla shows redness and is tender over 3x3cm area.

  1. What is your suspicion
  2. Give a sketch to manage his problem
Key / Answer
a. Hydradenitis suppurativa
b. A course of metronidazole, prolonged course of Erythromycin, avoid deodorant in axilla
Keep axilla hygienically good, if the condition does not respond, then surgical excision is necessary. If a wide area of skin needs to be removed, the wound needs to be covered by a split-skin graft.

SEQ 12. A 24 years old newlywed woman comes with a firm swelling on her left supraclavicular fossa. She complains of numbness and weakness during washing of clothes. On examination this side pulse is weaker than on right side. On x-Rays chest, surgeon has discovered the cause of her problem and advised treatment.

  1. what the surgeon has discovered on x-rays
  2. What is the treatment advised and how should he proceed
Key / Answer
a. Cervical Rib on left side
b. Before surgery nerve conduction study, duplex scan subclavian artery or angiography is needed. The rib should be excised with periosteum otherwise it will regenerate Extraperiosteal excision of the cervical rib together with any bony prominence from the first rib.

SEQ 13. A 55 years old farmer comes with history of swelling around left ear for the last ten years. It has recently increased in size up to 8×8 cm and he is unable to close his left eye

  1. What is your spot diagnosis
  2. What will you do to complete your clinical examination
  3. Outline the management plan in six lines
Key / Answer
a. Carcinoma left parotid gland with facial nerve involvement
b. Examination of the whole parotid gland including inspection, bimanual palpation, Bidigital examination of duct, examination of facial nerve, temporomandibular joins And regional lymph nodes
c. Confirmation of the diagnosis by FNAC of swelling, CT scans Head, Neck and face, MRI
X-Ray chest, USG abdomen, after counselling the patient and taking consent the Radical parotidectomy with neck dissection is performed

SEQ 14. In September there is new epidemic of disease characterized by patients complaining of fever with rigors, headache and body aches. On examination, many patient show hemorrhagic small spots on their body.

  1. What is your most likely diagnosis
  2. Name two pathogenic elements in spread of this illness
  3. Suggest in few lines measures limit the spread of this disease
Key / Answer
a. Dengue fever
b. Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, ticks, infected blood products and organ transplantation, mother to child
c. (1) Advocacy, social mobilization and legislation to ensure that public health bodies and communities are strengthened,
(2) Collaboration between the health and other sectors (public and private), (3) An integrated approach to disease control to maximize use of resources, (4) evidence-based decision making to ensure any interventions is targeted appropriately
(5) capacity-building to ensure an adequate response to the local situation
The primary method of controlling A. aegypti is by eliminating its habitats. This is done by emptying containers of water or by adding insecticides or biological control agents to these areas Reducing open collections of water through environmental modification is the preferred method of control; People can prevent mosquito bites by wearing clothing that fully covers the skin, using mosquito netting while resting, and/or the application of insect repellent

SEQ 15. A 70 years old elder from tribal areas of Pakistan has a non-healing 1.5×1.5 cm ulcer on his right cheek for the last one year. On examination, the ulcer has rolled up margins with no evidence of any swelling in rest of his head and neck.

  1. Name two main suspicions keeping a high index
  2. Give management plan of diseases you favor with reference to any latest development in this field
Key / Answer
a. Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma
b. wide local excision of lesion or Radiotherapy
Latest development is Mohs Micrographic surgery

SEQ 16. A 12 years old school boy is brought to emergency after a road traffic accident twenty minutes earlier. He has a laceration on his forehead, bleeding. He is fully conscience.

  1. What will be your first step
  2. In three lines give next plan
  3. Enlist definite management plan
Key / Answer
a. Primary survey and resuscitation, airway, breathing and circulation. In this patient the first step is to stop the bleeding by pressure dressing.
b. secondary survey , x-rays skull and neck to rule out skull fracture and cervical spine injury, Primary suturing of laceration
c. appropriate analgesia and antibiotics , tetanus toxoid, primary suturing of lacerated wound with proline under aseptic measures , monitoring of the patient with Glasgow coma scale and follow up after 5 days for the examination of wound and stich removal

SEQ 17. A six years old girl is in outpatient department with discharging sinus of right side of neck just anterior to anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle since birth

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis
  2. Name most relevant investigation
  3. Suggest appropriate definite treatment
Key / Answer
a. Branchial sinus / fistula
b. Sinogram / fistulogram, MRI
c. Complete excision of sinus/ fistula tract by more than one transverse incision in neck under general anaesthesia

SEQ 18. A 60 years old farmer complains of non-healing ulcer on his lower lip for the last four months. He has also observed 1×1 cm swelling on left side of neck.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis with high index of suspicion
  2. Give two necessary investigation to reach diagnosis and design management
  3. Enumerate management options
Key / Answer
a. Squamous cell carcinoma lower lip
b. incision biopsy of lip ulcer, FNAC neck swelling, CT scan Head neck and chest
c. Both surgery and radiotherapy are frequently employed and are highly effective methods of treatment, each giving cure rates of about 90 per cent.
Small tumors: Up to one-third of the lower lip can be removed with a V or W-shaped excision with primary closure this method is suitable for tumor up to 2 cm in diameter. The residual defect is reconstructed by approximating and suturing the borders in three layers; mucosa, muscle and skin. Particular attention should be paid to the correct alignment of the vermilion junction. This simple procedure can readily be performed under local anaesthetic on an out patient basis. Initially the lip will appear tight, but this improves after about 3 months.
Intermediate Tumors: Larger tumors, which produce defects of between one-third and
Two-thirds the size of the lower lip, require local flaps for reconstruction. V or W excision will result in microstomia. Large central defects are best managed using the Johansen step technique This allows closure of the defect by symmetrical advancement of soft-tissue flaps, utilizing the excess skin in the labio-mental grooves. Alternative techniques include the Bernard rotational flap.
Total lip reconstruction
Extensive tumors of the lower lip, which invade adjacent tissues (T4), have a high incidence of neck node metastasis. Patients with such advanced disease require surgery that may include Uni-lateral or bilateral selective neck dissection and total excision of the lower lip and chin. The lower lip defect is best reconstructed with a forearm flap

SEQ 19. Give a brief account of risk factors which make a wound more prone to infection.

Key / Answer
Factors influencing healing of a wound
• Site of the wound
• Structures involved
• Mechanism of wounding, Incision, Crush, Crush avulsion
• Contamination (foreign bodies/bacteria)
• Loss of tissue
• other local factors, Vascular insufficiency (arterial or venous), Previous radiation, Pressure
• Systemic factors, Malnutrition or vitamin and mineral deficiencies, Disease (e.g. diabetes mellitus), Medications (e.g. steroids), Immune deficiencies [e.g. chemotherapy, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), Smoking

SEQ 20. A 18 years old club cricketer is disturbed by slowing increasing swelling under his tongue. On examination this looks blue and more prominent on right side and is fluctuant with little displacement of his tongue. This problem is observed for the last six months.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis with one differential diagnosis
  2. Give four lines on management options
Key / Answer
a. Ranula. Differential diagnosis is retention mucous cyst or tumor minor salivary gland
b. Marsupialization of cyst
Excision of cyst
Excision of cyst and underlying sublingual gland
Sometimes spontaneously disappear
Never perform incision and drainage as recurrence is common

SEQ 21. A 25 years old house wife has noticed a 1×1.5 cm swelling on back of her neck for last one week. This is painful to touch. She also complains of discomfort during combing of her hair.

  1. What is the diagnosis
  2. How will you manage
Key / Answer
a. sebaceous cyst
b. excision of the cyst under local anaesthesia
if abscess has formed in cyst then first incision and drainage is performed then later Excision of the cyst is performed.

SEQ 22. A 70 years old diabetic lady has presented with swelling of her right arm after an act of prolonged itching. Her arm is red and painful. She has fever with chills.

  1. What is the diagnosis
  2. What are the components of management? Enumerate
Key / Answer
a. cellulitis of right arm
b. Appropriate Antibiotics
Proper analgesia
Rest of arm
Icing
Elevation of right limb
Compression with elastic bandage

SEQ 23. A 30 years old motor mechanic is worried by weight loss for last ten months. He has increased appetite, anxious and disturbed by hand tremors. On examination his pulse is 115/min. There is visible prominence in front of neck with staring gaze.

  1. What is the diagnosis
  2. Enlist necessary investigations
  3. Give three management options
Key / Answer
a. Thyrotoxicosis
b. Thyroid function test (T3, T4, TSH), thyroid antibodies, Thyroid scan
c. Antithyroid drugs, Beta Blockers , Radioactive iodine , Thyroidectomy

SEQ 24. After getting a multivitamin injection on her left upper arm, this 40 year old house maid comes with painful swelling of left upper arm for last two weeks. She has fever with rigors. The swelling is 8×8 cm red hot, tender and fluctuant.

  1. What is the clinical diagnosis
  2. Outline the best option to manage
  3. Name important investigation which can bring complete resolution of problem
Key / Answer
a. Injection Abscess left arm
b. incision and drainage of abscess with secondary wound heeling
c. pus for culture and sensitivity, biopsy of wall of abscess cavity, x-rays left arm to rule out osteomyelitis

SEQ 25. A 25 years old office clerk complains of pain and fatigue of his right hand after a prolonged desk work. On examination his right radial pulse is weaker than left. There is firm prominence on right supraclavicular fossa.

  1. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis
  2. Which simple routine investigation can give support to your diagnosis
  3. Outline the treatment
Key / Answer
a. symptomatic right cervical rib
b. X-Rays cervical spine and chest
c. Extraperiosteal excision of the cervical rib together with any bony prominence from the first rib

SEQ 26. A 60 years old shopkeeper comes to outpatient department with 10×10 cm swelling of left side of face below and in front of left ear for last 15 years. There has been recent increase in size.

  1. What is the clinical diagnosis
  2. Which clinical examination is mandatory in this case
  3. Give few line on management
Key / Answer
a. Pleomorphic adenoma left parotid gland probably malignant change has occurred
b. Facial Nerve examination, bimanual examination of parotid gland and examination of neck lymph nodes
c. After the confirmation of diagnosis with FNAC and CT or MRI scan superficial left parotidectomy with preservation of facial nerve if it is benign otherwise in case of malignancy radical parotidectomy with resection of nerve trunk and radical neck dissection accordingly

SEQ 27. A 65 years old bus accident victim is brought to emergency one week after the accident. His initial care was done by family at home. He is toxic looking with temperature 101F. His injured right leg is swollen, tender and discolored. On examination a crepitus is discovered.

  1. What is your clinical diagnosis
  2. Which simple investigation will clinch the diagnosis
  3. Enlist the treatment options in three lines
Key / Answer
a. gas gangrene right leg
b. X-Rays right leg will show subcutaneus gas
c. Treatment, to be effective, requires immediate action:
Maximum doses of penicillin (up to 2.4 g 4-hourly) or clindamycin and metronidazole, blood transfusion. Either exposure of all the affected muscle groups by long incisions or, in the subcutaneous infections, multiple subcutaneous drainage and slough extraction by incisions into the subcutaneous tissue. Hyperbaric oxygen where this is available. It is said to be helpful in the postoperative period.
The use of antiserum used to be recommended, but clinical experience was variable

SEQ 28. Grandfather of 75 years is losing weight over the past four months due to increasing difficulty to swallow solid food. He has noticed a small 1x1cm firm swelling in his left supraclavicular fossa.

  1. What is your suspicion on priory and its basis
  2. Which investigation specific to problem will be your choice? name three only
  3. How will you counsel the patient and family about management options
Key / Answer
a. carcinoma esophagus as he has dysphagia, weight loss and supraclavicular lymph node
b. barium swallows, endoscopy , CT scan Neck chest and upper abdomen
c. the patient and the family will be counselled about the management according to the
stage of disease and operability, resectability of tumor and site of tumor. Surgery and Radiotherapy is curative if tumor is in the upper or middle part of esophagus and it is
not metastasized distally. Palliation can be done by intubation of esophagus by different tubes or stents, surgical resection of esophagus and transposition of defect with stomach or colon or small intestine

SEQ 29. A 14 years old swimmer attends clinic with headache, fever and nose block. Headache is dull and changes with different postures

  1. What is the likely diagnosis
  2. Which imaging technique will be useful to support your diagnosis
  3. Outline the management
Key / Answer
a. Maxillary sinusitis
b. X-Rays paranasal sinus, CT scan face, MRI face
c. Decongestant nasal spray, analgesia, antibiotics, Antral lavage under local or general anaesthesia, Intranasal endoscopic operations permit the precise removal of diseased mucosa with minimal trauma to adjacent tissues. Caldwell—Luc radical antrostomy.

SEQ 30. Three days after tooth extraction this 50 years old teacher comes to emergency with a swelling of floor of mouth displacing her tongue upward. She looks toxic and finding difficulty in teaching due to voice limitation. Her breathing is also uncomfortable while she lies in bed

  1. What is your most likely suspicion
  2. Which serious problem can occur if untreated
  3. Give steps of management
Key / Answer
a. Ludwig angina
b. airway obstruction due to glottic edema
c. Broad-spectrum antibiotics such as amoxacillin or cefuroxime combined with metronidazole to combat the anaerobes. In advanced cases where the swelling does not subside rapidly with such treatment, a curved submental incision may be used to drain both submandibular triangles. The mylohyoid muscle may be incised to decompress the floor of the mouth. Simple but generous corrugated drains may be placed in the wound which is then lightly sutured. This operation may be conducted under local anaesthesia and on rare occasions an additional tracheostomy may be necessary.

SEQ 31. A young female patients from low socioeconomic class presents with a pus discharging sinus in the lower part of the posterior triangle of the neck. Chest X-Rays reported tubercular lesion at the apex of right lung.

  1. What other investigation are required to confirm the diagnosis
  2. What is your plan of treatment in this case
Key / Answer
a. pus for culture sensitivity and AFB, sinus wall for histopathology, PCR, growth of bacteria takes 6 weeks.
b. Good nutrition and hygienic living. Treatment with triple therapy consisting of rifampicin 600 mg, isoniazid 300 mg and pyrazinamide 1500—2000 mg per day given orally for at least 2—3 months is the standard chemotherapy at present, followed by 6 months of double therapy (rifampicin plus isoniazid).
Sensitivity testing is usually available at the end of the first period of triple therapy and, if the source of the infection is with an organism that is resistant to one of these drugs, appropriate changes can then be made. Ethambutol may be of use in resistant cases. In cases of pulmonary tuberculosis, the sputum should be examined to assess progress every month until the smears are negative, but should the number of acid-fast bacilli increase or the cultures remain positive, the development of resistance or noncom-pliance of the patient with treatment should be considered.

SEQ 32. A 5 years old male child presents with soft cystic swelling about 12 cm in diameter in the lower part of anterior triangle of neck. It has been present since birth and increasing in size. on transillumination it is brilliantly translucent.

  1. What is the differential diagnosis
  2. What complication may arise if not treated now
  3. What advise will you give to parents regarding treatment of this patient
Key / Answer
a. cystic hygroma, branchial cyst,
b. Respiratory difficulty, infections
c. complete excision of the cyst at an early stage. Injection of a sclerosing agent, for example picibanil (OK-432), may reduce the size of the cyst; however, they are
commonly multicystic and if the injection is extracystic subsequent surgery may be more difficult.

SEQ 33. while eating food a young male gets severe colicky pain in the right submandibular salivary gland which becomes enlarged and painful. Patient also gets fever

  1. How will you investigate this problem
  2. What is the treatment of this condition
  3. What are the complications of stone in submandibular salivary gland duct
Key / Answer
a. Lower occlusal X-Rays, Sialogram, ultrasound and CT scan
b. If the stone is lying within the submandibular duct in the floor of the mouth anterior to the point at which the duct crosses the lin-gual nerve (second molar region), the stone can be removed by incising longitudinally over the duct. Once the stone has been delivered, the wall of the duct should be left open to promote free drainage of saliva.
Where the stone is proximal to the lingual nerve, i.e. at the hilum of the gland, stone retrieval via an intraoral approach should be avoided as there is a high risk of damage to the lingual nerve during exploration in the posterior lingual gutter. Treatment is by simultaneous submandibular gland excision and removal of the stone and ligation of the submandibular duct under direct vision.
c. infection, pain, stricture formations, recurrence of stone

SEQ 34. A 50 years old lady who been eating betel (pan) for the last 15 years, develops a painless ulcer in the middle of the right lateral border of her tongue. It is gradually increasing in size and has everted margins and its base is hard to touch

  1. Clinically what is your diagnosis
  2. How will you investigate this case
  3. What methods of treatment are available for this condition
Key / Answer
a. Carcinoma tongue
b. incisional biopsy to confirm the diagnosis , CT scan head neck and chest, MRI face , USG abdomen
c. Radiotherapy , chemotherapy and surgery ( hemiglossectomy with radical neck dissection

SEQ 35. a young boy of eighteen years met with an accident, while driving a motor cycle. He sustained blunt injury to his abdomen. in the emergency room his blood pressure was 80mm Hg, and pulse rate was 120/minute, he was pale

  1. Which is the most common solid intra-abdominal organ to rupture in blunt abdominal trauma
  2. What investigations are required to confirm the diagnosis
  3. How will you resuscitate and prepare this patient for operation
Key / Answer
a. liver
b. Four quadrant aspiration , Diagnostic peritoneal lavage ( for hemoperitoneum ) USG Abdomen , CT scan Abdomen ( for hemoperitoneum and rupture of solid organs )
c. Emergency resuscitation always starts with assessment of airway, breathing and circulation. In this patient two wide bore intravenous cannulas are inserted and ringer lactate fluid is given till blood is available, nasogastric tube is passed for aspiration. Folly’s catheter for urine output measurement. Antibiotics and analgesia, arrangement of cross matched blood. Informed consent of the patient

SEQ 36. seven years old diabetic female patient developed right ischiorectal abscess. It was rapidly enlarging in size and patient was very septic. At places the skin was gangrenous. The wound was foul smelling. It was clinically diagnosed as synergistic gangrene (necrotizing fascitis)

  1. Which micro bacteria are involved in this infection
  2. What other investigations are to be carried out in this case
  3. What is the treatment of this condition
Key / Answer
a. A mixed pattern of organisms is responsible: coliforms, staphylococci, Bacteroides spp., anaerobic streptococci and Pepto streptococci have all been implicated, acting in synergy.
b. Pus for culture and sensitivity , MRI ischiorectal area, CT scan abdomen , Endoluminal USG
c. broad spectrum antibiotics, inotropic sport , blood sugar control, serial extensive debridements , later graft on defects

SEQ 37. Fifty five years old patient had a soft, compressible swelling on the left side of neck for the last 8 years, it was gradually increasing in size and would further enlarge with taking food and reduce in size after regurgitation of food, he also complained of difficulty in swallowing

  1. Describe the investigations to confirm the diagnosis
  2. What plan would you suggest for treatment
Key / Answer
a. video fluoroscopic swallowing study. Barium swallow ,
b. Preoperative physiotherapy and attention to the respiratory, cardiovascular and nutritional aspects of the patient are important. Preoperative chest physiotherapy and perioperative antibiotics are recommended. Surgical excision of the pouch through neck approach.

SEQ 38. twenty five years old male patient sustained open wound to his right thigh in a factory. The wound was heavily contaminated with dirt. on third day of injury he developed full-blown tetanus

  1. How will you manage this case
  2. What is the prognosis
Key / Answer
a. Isolation, quietness and comfort, drainage of pus and wound toilet will be needed. Human anti-tetanus globulin is given intramuscularly to limit the effects of free toxins and should be used in doses of 25—500 units to give cover throughout the period of establishing active immunity by giving toxoid (tetanus vaccine, adsorbed) im. Antibiotics, including penicillin and metronidazole, are indicated along with measures to protect the lungs. In dangerously ill patients, a major cyanotic convulsion will require curarization. Intermittent positive-pressure respiration should be provided, and intensive nursing care with increasing sedation would be needed
b. the death rate can be reduced to approximately 15 per cent. 30 % mortality in severe cases

SEQ 39. A 60 years old man presents with progressive dysphagia for solids. He gives history of weight loss. He has been smoking for the last 30 years .on examination he looks wasted. Barium swallow study showed stricture at the mid esophagus.

  1. How will you assess the nutrition status of this patient?
  2. What is the next step to confirm the diagnosis?
  3. How will you treat this patient?
Key / Answer
a. Body weight ,Anthropometry (skin fold thickness, mid arm
circumference), Lymphocyte count, Serum albumin
b. Esophagoscopy and taking biopsy
c. Confirmation of the diagnosis by endoscopy
Assessing and improving the nutrition
CT chest and abdomen to assess the extent of tumor
Staging the diseases
Preparation of the patient for surgery including fitness for general anesthesia Assessment of pulmonary function
Surgical management (curative or palliative) according the stage of disease Follow up of the patient for complications and recurrence of diseases

SEQ 40. A 25 years old female presented with multiple swellings in front of neck. She gives history of palpation, weight loss and disturbance of menses. On examination, the swellings are firm in consistency and move with swallowing. Radiograph neck shows deviation of trachea.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. How will you confirm the diagnosis?
  3. How will you manage this case?
Key / Answer
a. Toxic Multinodular goiter
b. Thyroid Function Test (T3 ,T4 & TSH ), Ultrasound Thyroid Gland , Thyroid Scan
c. Confirmation of the diseases
Anti-thyroid drugs and beta-blocker to control the hyperthyroid status before definitive surgery
When patient becomes Euthyroid, plan for total thyroidectomy Preparation of patient includes informed consent and counseling regarding total thyroidectomy especially explain the nature of disease, complications of procedure and use of thyroxin for whole life indirect laryngoscopy, stop antithyroid drug at night and give beta blocker in the morning with sips of water

SEQ 41. A 60 years old male smoker presented with non-healing ulcer on the left lateral side of tongue. On examination, 2×2 cm ulcer present over the posterior third part of the left lateral side of tongue. Submandibular lymph node hard in consistency is also palpable.

  1. What are differential diagnoses
  2. How will confirm your diagnosis
  3. What are the principles of management
Key / Answer
a. Tuberculous ulcer
Dental ulcer
Syphilitic ulcer
Malignant ulcer (squamous cell carcinoma)
b. Incisional biopsy.
c. Confirmation of the disease
Staging of the diseases with MRI or CT Head, Neck & Chest
Radiotherapy or Surgical treatment according to the stage of disease Up to 30% of patients with a T1 (<2cm diameter) tumor have occult metastasis at presentation and should undergo simultaneous treatment of the neck by either selective
neck dissection or radiotherapy. When performing surgical excision of the primary tumor, a 2-cm margin in all planes should be achieved to ensure a wide, complete excision. In Advanced tumors (T3 andT4), a major resection of the tongue and floor of the mouth and mandible is required.
T4 tumors of the oral tongue often cross the midline, for which total glossectomy is the only option to achieve adequate tumor clearance.

SEQ 42. A 20 years old male got trauma to face in road traffic accident. He complains of pain neck. On examination the left cheek is depressed and there is parasthesia over the cheek

  1. How will you assess the patient in emergency room?
  2. What is le Fort classification?
  3. What is the possibly of neck pain in the patient?
Key / Answer
a. Primary survey and resuscitation
Airway with care of neck spine
Breathing
Circulation
Deformity
Exposure
Secondary survey head to toe examination
Radiograph Head, Neck and Chest
OPG (Orthopantomograph)
CT scans Head and Neck.
b. Le Fort classified the Fracture of Maxilla in to three groups
Le Fort I Separates the alveolus and palate from the facial skeleton above. Fracture line runs from the nasal pyriform aperture to lateral &medial walls of maxillary antrum posteriorly to include the lower part of the pterygoid plates Le Fort II Pyramidal in shape .Runs through the bridge of the nose & ethmoid to medial part of the infraorbital rim & infraorbital foramen to posteriorly through the lateral wall of the maxillary antrum at a higher level than Le Fort. I to the pterygoid plates at the back cribriform plate may be fractured. CSF rhinorrhea Le Fort III effectively separates facial skeleton from the base of the skull to nasal bridge, septum & ethmoid. Irregularly through the bones of orbit to frontozygomatic suture to lateral wall of the maxillary sinus at a higher level & the pterygoid plates .Cribriform plate fracture leading to CSF rhinorrhea
c. Neck pain may be due to cervical spine injury

SEQ 43. A 35 years old male presented with submandibular swelling which increase in size after meal. He also complains of pain in the swelling after taking lemon drinks. On examination, the swelling is bimanually palpable.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. How will you investigate this case?
  3. How will you treat this patient?
Key / Answer
a. Calculus in submandibular gland
b. Radiograph floor of mouth as majority stones are radiopaque
Sialogram to see the level of obstruction in submandibular duct.
c. If the stone is lying within the submandibular duct in the floor of the mouth anterior to the point at which the duct crosses the lingual nerve (second molar region), the stone can be removed by incising longitudinally over the duct. Once the stone has been delivered, the wall of the duct should be left open to promote free drainage of saliva.
Suturing the duct will lead to stricture formation and the recurrence of obstructive symptoms. Where the stone is proximal to the lingual nerve, i.e. at the hilum of the gland, stone retrieval via an intraoral approach should be avoided, as there is a high risk of damage to the lingual nerve during exploration in the posterior lingual gutter. Treatment is by simultaneous submandibular gland excision and removal of the stone and ligation of the submandibular duct under direct vision.

SEQ 44. A 20 years old female presented with swelling in the right side of neck. She also gives history of low-grade fever and weight loss. On examination, the swelling is soft, nontender and fluctuant. Her ESR is 90 mm/HG.

  1. Give three differential diagnoses.
  2. How will you investigate this patient?
  3. How will you treat this patient?
Key / Answer
a. cold abscess
Branchial cyst
Cystic hygroma
b. Thorough history and examination of neck along with swelling
Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology
Culture and sensitivity of aspirate
Excision biopsy
c. If it is cold abscess repeated aspirations and give anti- tuberculosis drugs for 9 months. Follow the patient for response and see the side effects of drugs.
If it is Branchial cyst then it is excised
If it is cystic hygroma then it is also excised

SEQ 45. A 30 years old man got blunt trauma abdomen in road traffic accident. In the emergency room, he is received in semiconscious stat. His pulse is 120/min and blood pressure is 90/60 mm/Hg. His abdomen is gradually distending.

  1. What is the possible cause of hypotension
  2. What is this type of shock?
  3. How will you manage this patient
Key / Answer
a. internal bleeding my due to liver laceration, splenic laceration and injury to mesentery
b. Hypovolemic shock
c. Primary Survey and resuscitation
Pass nasogastric tube
Pass Foleys catheter for urine output measurements
Give antibiotics
Arrange cross-matched blood
Take informed consent for exploratory laparotomy and Shift the patient to Operation Theater for exploratory laparotomy If liver trauma then manage it according to the grade of injury If spleen is injured then then splenectomy If mesentery is lacerated then repair it.

SEQ 46. . A 25-year-old female presented with swelling in front of neck, palpitation and tremor of hands. On examination the swelling is diffuse, non-tender and moves with swallowing .USG neck shows no nodularity.

  1. Justify your diagnosis.
  2. Write three appropriate investigations, which are helpful in making diagnosis.
  3. Write three options to treat this patient
Key / Answer
a. Diffuse toxic goiter as swelling is diffuse in consistency and there are more CNS signs
b. Thyroid function test, Thyroid scan and thyroid antibodies
c. Antithyroid drugs
Radioactive iodine
Thyroidectomy

SEQ 47. . A 60-year-old farmer presented with non- healing ulcer on the right cheek. On examination, it has pearly rolled edge and telangiectatic vessels. No cervical lymph node palpable.

  1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
  2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
  3. Enlist the treatment options in this patient
Key / Answer
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Wide local excision and histopathology
c. Mohs’ micrographic surgery
Radiotherapy
Surgical excision and closure of wound

SEQ 48. . A 50-year-old male presented with non-healing ulcer on the right lateral side of tongue. On examination, the edge of ulcer is everted and base is indurated. A 3cm hard lymph node is palpable in right side of neck.

  1. How will you confirm the diagnosis?
  2. How will you treat this patient?
  3. Name the different types of neck dissections
Key / Answer
a. incisional biopsy
b. After confirmation of diseases stage the diseases
Up to 30% of patients with a T1 (<2cm diameter) tumor have occult metastasis at presentation and should undergo simultaneous treatment .Advanced tumors (T3 andT4) often encroach upon the floor of the mouth and, occasionally, the mandible. In these circumstances, a major resection of the tongue and floor of the mouth and mandible is required of the neck by either selective neck dissection or radiotherapy.
T4 tumors of the oral tongue often cross the midline, for which total glossectomy is the only option to achieve adequate tumor clearance.
c. Classical radical neck dissection involves resection of the cervical lymphatics, the lymph nodes and those structures closely associated such as the internal jugular vein, the accessory nerve, the submandibular gland and the sternomastoid muscle. These structures are all removed en bloc and in continuity with the primary disease if possible. The main disability that follows the operation is the drooping of the shoulder due to paralysis of the trapezius muscle as a consequence of excision of the accessory nerve.
Modified radical neck dissection — in selected cases one or more of the three following structures are preserved, the accessory nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle or the internal jugular vein, but otherwise all major lymph node groups and lymphatics are excised.
Selective neck dissection — in this type of dissection one or more of the major lymph node groups is preserved along with sternomastoid muscle, accessory nerve and internal jugular vein. Under these circumstances, the exact groups of nodes excised must be documented.

SEQ 49. Bomb Blast occurred near your hospital and you are expected to receive 20 casualties.

  1. What is the common scheme of assessment for these patients?
  2. What are the commonest steps of ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support)?
Key / Answer
a. A common scheme of assessment is presented below.
• Triage sieve — a quick survey is made to separate the dead and the walking from the injured.
• Triage sort — remaining casualties are now assessed and allocated to three or four groups according to local protocols:
category 1 — critical and cannot wait. Airway obstruction and catastrophic
Hemorrhage are examples;
category 2 — urgent. Serious injury but can wait a short time, 30 minutes in most systems;
category 3 — less serious injuries. Not endangered by delay
category 4 — expectant. Severe multisystem injury. Survival not likely; (optional) — heavy manpower demands.
b. ATLS component steps
Primary survey — identify what is killing the patient
Resuscitation — treat what is killing the patient
Secondary survey — proceed to identify all other injuries
Definitive care — develop a definitive management plan
Primary survey and resuscitation must be concurrent.

SEQ 50. An elderly man had a hard lymph node palpable in the upper part of the right side of the neck, anterior to the sternomastoid muscle. FNAC confirmed metastatic carcinoma, probably from a primary in the oropharynx.

  1. Where would you look for the primary focus
  2. What other investigations would you do for management of the case
Key / Answer
a. tongue , lip, pharynx, larynx, buccal cavity
b. CT scan, MRI, USG Abdomen, Laryngoscopy, if primary found then incisional biopsy of lesion.

SEQ 51. A 45 years old female patient from Gilgit had multinodular goiter for the last 15 years. One year ago she developed tachycardia, weight loss, tremors in hands and sweating of palms

  1. What is the diagnosis
  2. What investigations are required to confirm the diagnosis
Key / Answer
a. Toxic multinodular goiter
b. Thyroid Function Test ( T3, T4, THS ) Thyroid Scan

SEQ 52. A thirty five years old female patient had history of recurrent stone in both kidneys for which she lithotripsy done in Past. Now she had developed another stone in the right kidney. She also suffers from peptic ulcer diseases and radiological examination reveals multiple cysts in the limb bones.

  1. Clinically what is your diagnosis
  2. What investigations are required for confirmation
  3. How will you manage this case
Key / Answer
a. primary hyperparathyroidism
b. raised level of S/Ca, low level of phosphate , raised level of parathyroid hormone( PTH ) USG Neck, MIBG scan
c. after taking the detail history of patient, performing relevant physical and systemic examination, confirmation of the diagnosis by specific investigation and localisation of the parathyroid adenoma before definite surgical management. if it is parathyroid adenoma or malignancy then parathyroidectomy of respective gland is performed by carefully preserving the recurrent laryngeal nerve. if it is hyperplasia of glands then all the four glands are removed and small pieces of gland are implanted in the sternocleidomastoid muscle or brachioradialis muscle in the arm.

SEQ 53. A 45 years old patient developed an ulcerating lesion 1cm in diameter on the neck just below her right eye. The biopsy of the ulcer revealed basal cell carcinoma.

  1. Clinically how does basal cell carcinoma present
  2. What are the different types of treatment available? In your opinion what is the best treatment
Key / Answer
a. Clinically it is slowly growing locally malignant carcinoma skin. Its margins are pearly white and rolled up. No lymph node enlargement occurs.
b. wide local excision with reconstruction of defect, Mohs’ micrographic surgery. Local application of 5-fluorouracil, imiquimod, cryosurgery , radiotherapy
In my opinion in this patient Mohs’ micrographic surgery is best as lesion is around the eye

SEQ 54. A dentist notices a shaggy white mass in gingivobuccal recess of a 68 years old man. It has been increasing in size and bleeds occasionally.

  1. What investigations for the confirmation of diagnosis and plan of treatment are required
  2. What treatment would you suggest if it turns out to be cancerous
Key / Answer
a. incisional biopsy of the mass , CT scan Head , Face , Neck and Chest, MRI face , USG abdomen
b. if the tumor is small size (T1, T2) the wide local excision including the underlying muscle or bone. if node positive then supraomohyoid neck dissection. if the tumor large in size (T3, T4) then approach is lip-splitting technique, wide excision of the tumor with segment resection of involved bone. Reconstruction of the defect by radial artery forearm flap or temporalis muscle flap

SEQ 55. Mother of five years old child brought her son to you with complaint of that her son has a midline painless, cystic swelling in front of neck just below the hyoid bone. It has recently become red, painful and child has fever.

  1. What is the differential diagnosis
  2. How will you confirm the diagnosis
  3. What is the treatment of this condition
Key / Answer
a. infected thyroglossal cyst , acute infection in previously cold abscess, infected sebaceous cyst
b. Aspiration of cyst and culture of material , USG of Cyst
c. The treatment depends on the diagnosis. if infected thyroglossal cyst give antibiotics to settle the acute infection followed by complete excision of cyst with central core of hyoid bone (Sistrunk operation). If the diagnosis is cold abscess then give specific treatment (antituberculosis drugs). if infected sebaceous cyst then first do incision and drainage and later when infection is settled total excision of cyst wall.

SEQ 56. A diabetic patients developed multiple discharging sinus on the right side of the neck near the right angle of mandible with fever. Pus was sent for culture and it reported as actinomycosis

  1. What is the differential diagnosis
  2. What are the complications of this infection if not treated in time
  3. What is the best treatment for this condition
Key / Answer
a. carbuncle , Actinomycosis , osteomyelitis of mandible , cold abscess
b. it will burst out and spread in to tissue planes , gums can become indurate and bony swelling occur , sinus formation can occur , in chronic wounds malignancy can occur
c. benzyl penicillin , lincomycin , tetracycline

SEQ 57. A 26 years old psychiatric patient presents with brawny swelling in the right submandibular region and odynophagia. Examination reveals trismus, edema of the tongue and floor of mouth along with putrid halitosis.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis
  2. What are various complications of the untreated condition
  3. Outline a treatment plan for this patient
Key / Answer
a. Ludwig angina
b. dysphagia , painful obstruction of the airway, glottic edema
c. Antibiotics , curved submental incisions to drain out both submandibular triangles under local anaesthesia , Rarely tracheostomy may be needed

SEQ 58. A 28 years old male presented with enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Enumerates various causes of cervical lymphadenopathy

Key / Answer
Causes of cervical lymphadenopathy
Inflammatory, Reactive hyperplasia
Infective, Viral (infectious mononucleosis, HIV)
Bacterial (Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Actinomycosis, Tuberculosis, Brucellosis Protozoan, Toxoplasmosis
Neoplastic, Malignant
Primary, e.g. lymphoma
Secondary, e.g. squamous cell carcinoma
Known primary
Occult primary

SEQ 59. A 35 years old female presents with non-healing ulcerative lesion in the right submandibular region following the extraction of a carious tooth. On examination there is brawny edema and purulent discharge from the lesion which contains yellowish granules

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis
  2. What is the causative organism of this condition
  3. How will you confirm the diagnosis
  4. What is the treatment of this condition
Key / Answer
a. actinomycosis
b. actinomycosis Israelii
c. Diagnosis depends on finding the organism in pus or in tissue section. Pus should be collected in a sterile tube (a swab is usually insufficient) and inspected in a good light for the presence of pinhead-sized ‘sulphur granules’. On microscopy, the granules are seen to consist of Gram-posi-tive branching bacilli. The peripheral filaments radiate4 from the central part of the granule and may be surrounded by Gram-negative tissue clubs
d. benzyl penicillin, tetracycline , lincomycin

SEQ 60. A 38 years laborer presents with a painless swelling in the left cervical region. There is history of evening rise of fever and generalized malaise. the swelling is 3×4 cm, soft, nontender and fluctuant with normal local temperature. there are matted cervical lymph nodes on the same side.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis
  2. What investigations will you suggest to reach the diagnosis
  3. Briefly outline the treatment of this condition
Key / Answer
a. cold abscess ( tuberculosis lymphadenitis )
b. ESR, Pus for Culture and AFB, FNAC from matted lymphonods , excision biopsy lymph node , Mycodott
c. Multiple Aspirations of cold abscess, good nutrition and hygiene condition, Anti tuberculosis therapy for 9 months (rifampicin, ethambutol, isoniazid, pyrazinamide) according to the weight of patient. Now DOTT ( directly observed treatment therapy ) method adopted to insure the compliance of patient

SEQ 61.

  1. Define the terms “ cellulitis “ and “Lymphangitis “
  2. What are the common organisms responsible for these lesions
  3. What is the clinical presentation of these conditions
Key / Answer
a. cellulitis is the nonsuppurative invasive infection of tissues. In addition to the cardinal signs of inflammation, there is poor localisation .lymphangitis is inflammation of the lymphatics
b. Beta-hemolytics streptococci, staphylococci and C. perfringens.
c. Lymphangitis is caused by similar processes but presents as painful red streaks in affected lymphatics. Cellulitis is usually located at the point of injury and subsequent tissue infection. Lymphangitis is often accompanied by painful lymph node groups in the rebated drainage area.

SEQ 62. A 47 years old intravenous drug abuser who is suspected to have HIV infection presented with right sided parotid abscess requiring incision and drainage. as a surgeon, what precautions will you take to protect yourself during parotid surgery

Key / Answer
wear goggles for eye protection
Wear double gloves and long shows
carry out the procedure in an orderly manner.
Surgical assistants should be kept to a minimum
should be instructed not to move while the operation is proceeding. If the assistants’ position is to be adjusted then the operating surgeon should stop operating while changes are being made. This should avoid the risk of the operating surgeon injuring an assistant’s hand while it is being moved across the operative field.
The operation should proceed in a slow and methodical manner with meticulous attention to hemostasis, taking care to avoid unexpected rapid bleeding which changes the tempo of the procedure and increases the risk of inadvertent injury to the operators.
No sharp instruments or scalpels should be passed across the operative field from hand to hand.
All instruments are passed from the scrub nurse to the surgeon and back to the scrub nurse in a dish, thereby reducing the risk of injury while passing instruments.

SEQ 63. A 46 years old man presents with an irregular bright red lesion on the mucosal aspect of right cheek, diagnosed as “ Erythroplakia “

  1. Define Erythroplakia
  2. Enumerate the pathological features of this lesion
  3. Outline the treatment of this lesion
Key / Answer
a. Erythroplakia is defined as any lesion of the oral mucosa that presents as a bright red plaque which cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other recognizable condition.
b. The lesions are irregular in outline and separated from adjacent normal mucosa. The surfaces may be nodular. These lesions occasionally coexist with leukoplakia.
c. As the incidence of malignant change in Erythroplakia is 17-fold higher than in leukoplakia. In every case of Erythroplakia there are areas of epithelial dysplasia, carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma. Clearly, all Erythroplakia areas must be completely excised either surgically or with a carbon dioxide laser, and the specimens submitted for careful pathological examination.

SEQ 64. enumerates various lesions and conditions of oral mucosa associated with increased risk of malignancy

Key / Answer
Conditions associated with malignant transformation
High-risk lesions
Erythroplakia
Speckled Erythroplakia
Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
Medium-risk lesions
Oral submucous fibrosis
Syphilitic glossitis
Sideropenic dysphagia (Paterson–Kelly syndrome)
Low-risk/equivocal-risk lesions
Oral lichen planus
Discoid lupus erythematosus
Discoid keratosis congenita

SEQ 65. An eight year old child has presented with delayed eruption of primary teeth.

  1. Enumerate the local factors related to delayed eruption
  2. Enumerate the systemic factors related to delayed eruption
Key / Answer
a. Local factors
• loss of space/overcrowding
• additional teeth
• dentigerous cysts
• retention of deciduous tooth.
b. Systemic factors
• metabolic diseases – cretinism and rickets;
• osteodystrophies – cleidocranial dysostosis and fibrous dysplasia;
• hereditary gingival fibromatosis.

SEQ 66. A 45 years old female has been diagnosed as a case of “Sjogren Syndrome “

  1. What is “ Sjogren Syndrome”
  2. How will you diagnose this condition
  3. How will you treat this patient
Key / Answer
a. Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune condition causing progressive destruction of salivary and lacrimal glands.
b. The characteristic pathological feature of Sjögren’s syndrome is the progressive lymphocytic infiltration, acinar cell destruction and proliferation of duct epithelium in all salivary and lacrimal gland tissue. The diagnosis is based on the history as no single lab oratory investigation is pathognomonic of either primary or secondary Sjögren’s syndrome
c. Management of Sjögren’s syndrome remains symptomatic. No known treatment modifies or improves the xerostomia or keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
An ophthalmological assessment is important, and artificial tears are essential to preserve corneal function. For dry mouth, various artificial salivary substitutes are available, but patients often consume large volumes of water, carrying a bottle of water with them at all times. In the dentate patient, the use of salivary substitutes with fluoride is important to counter the risk of accelerating dental caries. Other oral complications include oral candidosis and accelerated periodontal disease.

SEQ 67. A 35 years old female presents with an enlarged thyroid gland. while considering the appropriate management of this patient, how are various thyroid swelling classified

Key / Answer
Simple goitre (euthyroid)
Diffuse hyperplastic (Physiological, Pubertal, and Pregnancy)
Multinodular goitre
Toxic:
Diffuse, Graves’ disease
Multinodular, Toxic adenoma
Neoplastic, Benign, Malignant
Inflammatory
Autoimmune
Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s disease
Granulomatous
De Quervain’s thyroiditis
Fibrosing
Riedel’s thyroiditis
Infective
Acute (bacterial thyroiditis, viral thyroiditis, ‘subacute thyroiditis’)
Chronic (tuberculous, syphilitic)
Other, Amyloid

SEQ 68. A 40 years old male presents with history of upper abdominal pain aches and pain various bones, frequent passage of gravels in the urine and variable mode changes during the past 2 years. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His serum calcium is 3 mmol/L and BUN and creatinine are within normal range.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis
  2. Enumerate various investigations to confirm the diagnosis
  3. Enumerate various investigations to localize the causative lesion
  4. What is the treatment of this condition
Key / Answer
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Raised level of serum calcium and parathyroid hormone , low level of phosphate in serum , high level of urinary calcium
c. USG Neck , MIBG scan , MRI Neck, CT scan Neck , selective angiography and selective venous sampling
d. Parathyroidectomy where adenoma present. if there is hyperplasia then all the four glands are removed with transplantation of small pieces in the sternocleidomastoid muscle or brachioradialis muscle

SEQ 69. A mother brings her 3 months old son with complains of gradually enlarging swelling on the right upper neck which increases in size when the child cries. on examination the swelling is 6×8 cm in size, non-tender, soft to cystic and brilliantly trans illuminant. The temperature overlying skin is normal and fluctuation test is positive

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis
  2. What is the pathology of this lesion
  3. What are the various complications if the condition is left untreated
  4. What is the treatment
Key / Answer
a. cystic hygroma neck
b. The cysts are filled with clear lymph and lined by single layer of epithelium with a mosaic appearance.
c. respiratory problem , rupture , infection , obstruct the labor
d. Definitive treatment is complete excision of the cyst at an early stage. Injection of a sclerosing agent, for example picibanil (OK-432), may reduce the size of the cyst; however, they are commonly multicystic and if the injection is extracystic subsequent surgery may be more difficult.

SEQ 70. What do you understand by the term “ Radical Neck Dissection “ enumerate various types of radical neck dissections mentioning the various structures removed in every type

Key / Answer
this means removal of all the cervical lymph enbloc with other surrounding tissue along the primary tumor
Types of neck dissections
Classical radical neck dissection (Crile) — the classic operation involves resection of the cervical lymphatics, the lymph nodes and those structures closely associated such as the internal jugular vein, the accessory nerve, the submandibular gland and the sternomastoid muscle. These structures are all removed en bloc and in continuity with the primary disease if possible. The main disability that follows the operation is the drooping of the shoulder due to paralysis of the trapezius muscle as a consequence of excision of the accessory nerve.
Modified radical neck dissection — in selected cases one or more of the three following structures are preserved, the accessory nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle or the internal jugular vein, but otherwise all major lymph node groups and lymphatics are excised.
Selective neck dissection — in this type of dissection one or more of the major lymph node groups is preserved along with sternomastoid muscle, accessory nerve and internal jugular vein. Under these circumstances the exact groups of nodes excised must be documented.

SEQ 71. A 35 years old motorcyclist met a road traffic accident and sustained abrasions and lacerations of the face. A deep lacerations on the right side causes complete transection of ipsilateral facial nerve and parotid duct

  1. Enumerate the basic steps while examine a patient for faciomaxillary trauma
  2. Outline the principles of management of facial soft tissue injuries
  3. What is the treatment of transected facial nerve
  4. What is the treatment of transected parotid duct
Key / Answer
a. Commence with lacerations and soft-tissue injuries
• Systematically examine bones including the occiput and cranial vault
• Check dental occlusion and palpate the mouth
• Check cranial nerves
• Photographs are useful
b. Facial soft tissues have an excellent blood supply and heal well. They should be sutured as soon as possible following the injury after careful exploration, debridement and cleaning,
particularly where foreign bodies may be embedded. Many lacerations may be closed using local anaesthesia, injecting into the edges of the wound. If the patient is due to have a general anaesthetic and there is a delay, the wounds should be temporarily closed in advance, using local anaesthesia. Tissue sufficiently traumatized to have lost its blood supply should be removed with a sharp scalpel, and the edge to which it is to be apposed trimmed to fit as appropriate. Great care should be taken to replace tissues accurately, particularly in cosmetically important landmarks such as the vermilion border of the lips, the eyelids and nasal contours. Hemostasis is important. Muscle and underlying tissues should be brought together with absorbable sutures so that the edges of the wound lie passively within 2 mm of their final position. Then fine monofilament sutures (5/0 or 6/0) are used to bring the wound edges together Sutures should be placed so as to avoid compromising the blood supply of the apices of small flaps. Vacuum drains are used where there is concern over dead space beneath the wounds. The lacerations should be covered with antibiotic ointment two or three times per day, and broad-spectrum antibiotics should be prescribed. Ideally, alternate sutures should be removed from the third day with the remaining sutures removed on the fifth day. Intraoral lacerations require careful debridement, and closure in layers with resorbable suture materials. Lacerations to mobile structures such as the tongue and soft palate can often be under estimated in terms of their depth. Failure to close the deeper layers of intraoral lacerations may predispose to later dehiscence,
c. Primary repair is the most appropriate treatment
d. Cannulate from the mouth and anastomose over the stent

SEQ 72. 35 years old lady presents with solitary nodule in front of neck which moves on deglutition with recent change in voice

  1. What is the diagnosis
  2. What important relevant investigations are required
  3. What are the treatment options in papillary carcinoma
Key / Answer
a. Thyroid Carcinoma
b. thyroid scan , FNAC solitary nodule , Thyroid function test( T3,T4, THS), CT Neck and chest , USG neck and abdomen
c. Total thyroidectomy with neck dissection, radioactive iodine therapy and thyroxin in suppressive doses.

SEQ 73. Painful red looking swelling in right submandibular region in 20 years old boy with following findings and complaints, difficulty on swallowing, throbbing pain, tender and fluctuant swelling

  1. What are the possible diagnosis
  2. What is the treatment
Key / Answer
a. Ludwig angina , sialadenitis , abscess
b. if Ludwig angina then first try antibiotics if do not respond then make incision over the swelling and decompress the submandibular triangle.
if submandibular abscess then incision and drainage done along with appropriate antibiotics

SEQ 74.

  1. define bacteremia and septicemia
  2. what precaution would you take in extraction of tooth in a patient who has mitral valve replacement
Key / Answer
a. Bacteremia means just presence of bacteria in the blood and septicemia mean when these organism multiplying and producing toxins in the blood
b. the patient should get prophylactic antibiotics before extraction of tooth

SEQ 75. what do you know by term

  1. healing by first intention
  2. healing by second intention give two examples of each
Key / Answer
a. Where wound edges are apposed healing proceeds rapidly to closure; this is known as healing by first intention or primary healing; eg surgical wounds closed primarily , thyroidectomy , parotidectomy or traumatic laceration on face sutured primarily heal by first intention
b. Where the wound edges are apart, such as when there has been tissue loss, the same biological processes occur, but rapid closure is not possible. Angiogenesis and fibroblast proliferation result in the formation of granulation tissue. These contracts to reduce wound area and allow epithelialization across its surface to achieve wound closure. This is known as healing by second intention. all wound after debridement kept open for healing by second intention or wound after incision and drainage also heal by second intention

SEQ 76. A patients has undergone subtotal thyroidectomy for toxic goitre

  1. enumerate various post-operative complications
  2. how will you manage postoperative hemorrhage in such case
Key / Answer
a. hypoparathyroidism , primary and reactionary hemorrhage, injury to recurrent laryngeal nerve , injury to superior laryngeal nerve , thyrotoxicosis crises , keloid scar, seroma formation
b. if postoperative hemorrhage occurs within 24 hours it is called reactionary hemorrhage if airway is compromised in the ward open the stiches to relieve the pressure of hematoma and pack the wound. Inform the theater staff anesthetics and surgeon about the shift of patient. in theater control bleeding points under anesthesia and put suction drains in the wound. Replace blood loss and monitor the vital signs

SEQ 77. A 60 years old man presents with I cm ulcer on lateral side of tongue with rolled margins and a lymph node in submandibular region

  1. what is the diagnosis
  2. what investigations are required to confirm the diagnosis
  3. what are the treatment options
Key / Answer
a. carcinoma tongue
b. incisional biopsy , FNAC submandibular lymph node , CT scan Neck and oral cavity, MRI oral cavity , USG abdomen
c. surgery and radical neck dissection followed by radiotherapy or chemotherapy if required, only radiotherapy. carbon dioxide laser may be used for the partial glossectomy

SEQ 78. A young patients has been brought to emergency room with facial trauma and difficulty in breathing:

  1. what steps you will take to restore breathing
  2. what is the cricothyroidotomy
Key / Answer
a. remove the blood or any other material in the oral cavity and immediately cricothyroidotomy
b. it is the emergency procedure to maintain the airway patent by making incision in the cricothyroid membrane and putting mini tube in the trachea to restore airway

SEQ 79.

  1. what is the classification of maxillofacial injury
  2. What is management of LeFort 1 type of fracture
Key / Answer
a. soft tissue injury , facial skeletal injuries (upper third ,middle third and lower third ) Injury to facial nerve, injury to parotid duct, blow out fracture of orbit, nasal bone fractures
b. The lower part of the maxilla is approached through a gingival sulcus incision above the maxillary teeth as far back as the second molar. Fractures may be identified with ease through this route and fixed with plates or wires. The dental arch is restored to its original shape as far as possible so that it matches the pre-morbid occlusion with the mandibular arch. To achieve accurate location, dental arch bars or eyelet wires may need to be applied. Where this is anticipated, the necessary wiring is undertaken before the main part of the operation is commenced.

SEQ 80. A patients with hepatitis C infection has come to you for dental treatment

  1. What precautions you will take to avoid transmission to other patients and yourself
  2. How will you sterilize, used instruments
  3. What is the rout of infection in hepatitis C
Key / Answer
a. there should be careful protocols for the handling of blood and body fluids in order to reduce the risk of auto-infection and cross-infection, for hepatitis B and C viruses such precautions are of particular importance in patients who have pre-existing infection or who are immunosuppressed.
General measures include:
• education of staff so that they are fully aware that there is a full vaccination Programme for hepatitis B;
• the availability of advice for staff in the event of injury.
practical measures include:
identifying high-risk patients
• reduction of the number of staff in the theatres to cover essential roles only
• removal of all extraneous equipment from the theatre;
• Staff should avoid contact with contaminated body fluids, especially blood, and in this respect abrasions should be covered. If the member suffers from eczema, he or she should be excluded from the theatres and if contamination does occur rapid washing should be undertaken.
• When handling potentially contaminated blood or body fluids, scrub staff should use non permeable gowns and masks with eye protection and should double glove.
Circulating personnel should use plastic aprons and wear gloves.
• Spills should be dealt with by staff wearing gloves and using absorbent disposable clothes; hypochlorite 1 per cent solution may be applied to blood spilt on the floor.
• Particular care should be taken with the handling of sharps, which should always be kept in receivers.
• Swabs should be counted but not left exposed, as for routine operations on a spike rack; they should be placed in deep ‘swab pockets’ on plastic racks.
• Disposable equipment should be placed in yellow bags at the earliest possible time, then sealed and double bagged with a hazard label attached.
• Soiled linen should be placed in special alginate bags and sent to the laundry clearly marked. At the end of the case all surfaces should be cleaned with detergents and the Domestic Officer informed.
b. high level of disinfection and cleaning of instrument then sterilization of instrument
c. This may follow blood transfusion, plasma infusion and, rarely, the administration of sera, infection resembling infective hepatitis except that the incubation period is about 12 weeks. Transmission by plasma has been reduced by avoiding the pooling of plasma from a large
number of donors. Trans-mission by syringes is prevented if all syringes are disposable. It occurs amongst those who are drug addicts and possibly after tattooing or ear piercing. There is an extremely high rate among certain homosexual communities. In certain centers more than 50 per cent of male homosexual patients have antibody indicating exposure and about 5 per cent have active disease. In Athens, a group of prostitutes was found to have a rate 20 times that of married pregnant women, possibly due to more frequent coitus near the period or to other sexually transmitted diseases, producing bleeding that transmits the infection.

SEQ 81. A 60 KG patient with 30% burn and coughing has been admitted in the ward

  1. What are the important steps in treatment
  2. What is his fluid requirement
  3. How would you assess percentage of burn and depth of burn
Key / Answer
a. admit the patient , primary survey and resuscitation of patient ( airway, breathing and circulation ) proper analgesia ,
b. The simplest formula (for adults) is: 3—4 ml/kg body weight/% burn/in the first 24 hours. Half of this volume is given in the first 8 hours and the rest in the next 16 hours. Total fluid requirement will be 7200ml in 24 hours
c. rule of nine , Burn depth depends, in thermal injury, upon:
• the temperature of the burning agent;
• the mode of transmission of heat;
• the duration of the contact.

SEQ 82. A fifty years old man presents with gradual dysphagia to solid

  1. What are the relevant investigations
  2. What is the most probable diagnosis
Key / Answer
a. Barium swallow , Endoscopy , Endoluminal USG, CT scan Neck, chest and upper abdomen
b. carcinoma esophagus

SEQ 83. A patients presents with painless swelling in lateral side of neck, firm consistency, six month duration

  1. What are the important points in history that you will ask
  2. What investigations are required to make diagnosis
  3. What is FNAC
Key / Answer
a. progression of swelling , associated symptoms , any history of ear discharge or nose problem , any lesion on the scalp and oral cavity , any history of contact with tuberculosis patient
b. FNAC swelling, Excision biopsy , USG neck, CT scan , MRI , X-Ray Chest , ESR,
c. It is fine needle aspiration cytology

SEQ 84.

  1. what are the various varieties of shock
  2. Enumerate the clinical features of hypovolemic shock
  3. Attendant of patient, while witnessing a dental procedure collapse with following finding Pulse 50/ minute, thready Blood pressure 70/40 mmHg Beads of sweat on forehead (what type of shock she has suffered)
Key / Answer
a. Hypovolemic , cardiogenic , septic , vasovagal , anaphylactic, burn shock, neurogenic shock
b. low volume pulse, tachy cardia , low blood pressure, clod clammy extremities , sweating , decreased urine output, low CVP
c. psychogenic or vasovagal shock

SEQ 85. A child five months old has presented with unilateral cleft lip and palate

  1. How would you classify his deformity? what is your management plan
  2. Pre-operative preparation
  3. Timing of surgery
  4. Objectives of good repair
Key / Answer
a. classification is the LAHSHAL system, which is able to describe site, size and extent, as well as type of cleft
b. consent and counselling of parents , base line investigation , arrangement of blood and other item necessary for surgery
c. Cleft lip repair is commonly performed between 3 and 6 months of age, whereas cleft palate repair is frequently performed between 6 and 18 months.
d. The ultimate goal in cleft lip and palate management is a patient with a normal appearance of lip, nose and face, whose speech is normal, and whose dentition and facial growth fall within the range of normal development. Surgical techniques are aimed at restoring normal anatomy. With the exception of rare conditions such as holoprosencephaly, there is no true hypoplasia of the tissues involved on either side of the cleft. There is, however, displacement, deformation and underdevelopment of the muscles and facial skeleton. Emphasis is placed on muscular reconstruction of the lip, nose and face as well as muscles of the soft palate. Normal or near-normal

SEQ 86. A 20 years old female underwent appendectomy for perforated acute appendicitis. On 5th post-operative day she complains of diarrhoea and passage of mucous discharge per rectum. Rectal examination revealed bulging of the anterior rectal wall.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. How will you confirm the diagnosis?
  3. What are the treatment options?
Key / Answer
a. Pelvic abscess
b. USG abdomen and CT scan abdomen
c. Drainage of abscess through rectum
USG or CT guided aspiration of abscess

SEQ 87. A 30 years old married female presented with pain abdomen and vomiting. Pain is worsened by movement or breathing. She also gives history of vaginal discharge. On examination, her pulse is 100/min and temperature is 102F. There is tenderness and guarding in the abdomen. On vaginal examination she has tenderness on the movement of cervix.

  1. What is the differential diagnosis?
  2. How will you investigate this patient?
  3. How will you treat this patient?
Key / Answer
a. Pelvic inflammatory diseases
Perforated appendix
Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
b. Thorough history is taken regarding the pain and vomiting ,last menstrual period Detailed general physical and abdominal examination including rectal and vaginal examination. pregnancy test, BHCG, USG abdomen, Full Blood Count, urine complete examination
c. Admit the patient, Keep Nil per oral, pass Foley's catheter, appropriate antibiotic, prepare for exploratory laparotomy if perforated appendix or pelvic peritonitis or ruptured ectopic pregnancy. during exploration manage according to the diagnosis

SEQ 88. A 40-year-old bankers is suffering from duodenal ulcer for last 10 years. He is not properly taking medication for this problem. He presented with projectile non-bilious vomiting. On examination, he looks dehydrate and peristalsis is visible in the upper abdomen.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
  3. How will you manage this patient?
Key / Answer
a. Gastric outlet obstruction due to complication of long standing ulcer
b. Barium meal study , Endoscopy to assess the ulcer and take biopsy from suspicious area
c. After confirming the diagnosis and ruling out the malignancy gastrojejunostomy and vagotomy is performed

SEQ 89. A 60 years old man presented with mass in the upper abdomen. There is history of anorexia, dyspepsia and weight loss. He is chain smoker for last 30 years. On examination, he is wasted and looks pale .A hard mass palpable in the epigastrium. Hematology investigation shows iron deficiency anaemia

  1. what investigations are required to make diagnosis?
  2. What are the principles of treatment in this patient?
Key / Answer
a. CT Scan abdomen with oral and I/V contrast , USG abdomen , Endoscopy and Punch biopsy,
b.

SEQ 90. A 55-year-old obese woman presents with a painful, irreducible swelling in the right groin for the last 12 hours. She has nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. On examination, the swelling lies below and lateral to the pubic tubercle.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis and which hernia is most prone to strangulation?
  2. Outline the immediate management of this patient.
Key / Answer
a. Strangulated femoral hernia; femoral hernia is the type most prone to strangulation.
b. Resuscitation, NG tube, IV fluids, antibiotics, emergency surgery, resection-anastomosis if required, tissue repair (mesh contraindicated in a contaminated field).

SEQ 91. A 40-year-old male presents with a swelling in the right groin extending into the scrotum. The swelling is reducible, has an expansile cough impulse, and lies above and medial to the pubic tubercle.

  1. Differentiate between direct and indirect inguinal hernia on the basis of anatomy and examination.
  2. Discuss the preferred surgical management for primary inguinal hernia in adults.
Key / Answer
a. Indirect hernia: lateral to inferior epigastric artery, passes through the deep ring, may reach the scrotum. Direct hernia: medial to inferior epigastric artery, arises within Hesselbach’s triangle, rarely reaches the scrotum.
b. Lichtenstein tension-free mesh repair (gold standard); alternatives include Shouldice, Bassini, and laparoscopic TEP/TAPP repair.

SEQ 92. A 3-year-old child is brought by his mother with a small swelling at the umbilicus, which becomes prominent on crying. The swelling is soft, reducible, and 1.5 cm in size.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis? How is it different from a paraumbilical hernia?
  2. Outline the management of this condition in children.
Key / Answer
a. Umbilical hernia. Umbilical hernia is congenital, common in children, and usually closes spontaneously. Paraumbilical hernia is acquired, occurs in adults, and needs surgery.
b. Observation until 4-5 years of age; surgery is indicated if it persists beyond 5 years, is larger than 2 cm, or develops complications.

SEQ 93. A 60-year-old obese man presents with a bulge at the site of a previous midline laparotomy scar done 2 years ago for a perforated appendix. The swelling is large, reducible, and increases on coughing.

  1. What are the risk factors for incisional hernia development?
  2. Discuss the surgical management options for incisional hernia.
Key / Answer
a. Risk factors: wound infection, intra-abdominal sepsis, obesity, poor surgical technique, malnutrition, diabetes, steroid use, chronic cough.
b. Mesh repair (open or laparoscopic) is the standard of care; suture repair alone carries a high recurrence rate. Large or complex defects may need component separation or staged repair.